Nursing Elites

1. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?

• A. Take the medication with milk to prevent stomach upset.
• B. Increase fluid intake to 2-3 liters per day.
• C. Avoid taking the medication with dairy products.
• D. Continue taking the medication even if symptoms improve.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause crystalluria, so increasing fluid intake to 2-3 liters per day helps flush out the medication and prevent crystal formation in the kidneys. This also ensures adequate hydration, which supports the body's ability to fight the infection. Choice A is incorrect because ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because although it's important to complete the full course of antibiotics, it's equally crucial to report any improvement in symptoms to the healthcare provider.

2. A male client with HIV on saquinavir and other antiretrovirals reports increased hunger and thirst but weight loss. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Use a glucometer to assess capillary glucose.
• B. Explain to the client that an increased dose of medication is needed.
• C. Reassure the client that weight will improve as viral load decreases.
• D. Teach the client how to measure his weight accurately.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased thirst and hunger while losing weight may indicate hyperglycemia, a common side effect of saquinavir and other antiretrovirals. Using a glucometer to assess capillary glucose levels is essential to evaluate for hyperglycemia. Choice B is incorrect because increasing the dose of medication without assessing blood glucose levels can be dangerous. Choice C is incorrect because weight loss may not necessarily improve with viral load reduction and doesn't address the immediate concern of hyperglycemia. Choice D is irrelevant to the presenting symptoms and should not be a priority over assessing for hyperglycemia.

3. A client with asthma is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid. What teaching should the nurse provide?

• A. Rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler.
• B. Take the medication only during asthma attacks.
• C. Avoid using the inhaler before exercise.
• D. Clean the inhaler with hot water after each use.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct teaching the nurse should provide to a client prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid is to rinse the mouth with water after using the inhaler. This helps prevent oral fungal infections, a common side effect of inhaled corticosteroids. Choice B is incorrect because inhaled corticosteroids are usually used regularly, not just during asthma attacks. Choice C is incorrect as using the inhaler before exercise can actually help prevent exercise-induced bronchospasm. Choice D is incorrect because cleaning the inhaler with hot water after each use is not necessary and may damage the device.

4. A male client with schizophrenia is socially reclusive and pacing in the hallway. What is the most important intervention for the nurse to implement?

• A. Take the client's temperature and blood pressure.
• B. Encourage the client to rest.
• C. Plan an activity that includes physical exercise.
• D. Carefully observe the client throughout the shift.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to carefully observe the client throughout the shift. In this situation, the client's behavior suggests agitation and restlessness, which could potentially escalate. Observation is crucial to monitor any changes in behavior, assess for signs of distress, and ensure the client's safety. Taking the client's temperature and blood pressure (Choice A) may not address the immediate need for managing the client's behavior. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice B) might not be effective if the client is highly agitated. Planning an activity that includes physical exercise (Choice C) could exacerbate the situation rather than address the current behavior. Therefore, the priority is to observe the client closely to provide appropriate support and intervention as needed.

5. A client with a history of alcohol abuse presents with confusion and unsteady gait. The nurse suspects Wernicke's encephalopathy. Which treatment should the nurse anticipate?

• A. Thiamine supplementation
• B. Folic acid replacement
• C. Intravenous glucose
• D. Magnesium sulfate administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Wernicke's encephalopathy is a neurological condition commonly caused by a deficiency in thiamine, often seen in clients with chronic alcohol abuse. Thiamine supplementation is the primary treatment to prevent further neurological damage. Folic acid replacement (choice B) is not the correct treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy. Intravenous glucose (choice C) may be necessary in some cases of Wernicke's encephalopathy, but thiamine supplementation takes precedence. Magnesium sulfate administration (choice D) is not indicated as the primary treatment for Wernicke's encephalopathy.

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