HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. A client with Crohn's disease reports diarrhea. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Instruct the client to drink clear fluids and avoid solid foods.
- B. Administer antidiarrheal medication as prescribed.
- C. Encourage a high-fiber diet and regular physical activity.
- D. Restrict fluid intake and monitor electrolytes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct intervention for a client with Crohn's disease reporting diarrhea is to encourage a high-fiber diet and regular physical activity. A high-fiber diet helps manage diarrhea in Crohn's disease by adding bulk to the stool and promoting more regular bowel movements. Instructing the client to drink clear fluids and avoid solid foods (Choice A) may not be appropriate as it can further exacerbate diarrhea. Administering antidiarrheal medication (Choice B) without addressing the underlying cause may not be the best initial approach. Encouraging a high-fiber diet and physical activity (Choice C) is beneficial for managing symptoms. Restricting fluid intake and monitoring electrolytes (Choice D) is not recommended as it can lead to dehydration, which is a concern in clients with diarrhea.
2. A client with a urinary tract infection is prescribed ciprofloxacin. What is the most important teaching the nurse should provide?
- A. Take the medication with milk to prevent stomach upset.
- B. Increase fluid intake to 2-3 liters per day.
- C. Avoid taking the medication with dairy products.
- D. Continue taking the medication even if symptoms improve.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause crystalluria, so increasing fluid intake to 2-3 liters per day helps flush out the medication and prevent crystal formation in the kidneys. This also ensures adequate hydration, which supports the body's ability to fight the infection. Choice A is incorrect because ciprofloxacin should not be taken with dairy products as they can interfere with the absorption of the medication. Choice D is incorrect because although it's important to complete the full course of antibiotics, it's equally crucial to report any improvement in symptoms to the healthcare provider.
3. A client who gave birth 48 hours ago has decided to bottle-feed the infant. The nurse observes that both breasts were swollen, warm, and tender on palpation during the assessment. Which instruction should the nurse provide?
- A. Take warm showers to reduce swelling
- B. Wear a tight-fitting bra for support
- C. Apply ice to the breasts for comfort
- D. Express milk manually to relieve discomfort
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to advise the client to apply ice to the breasts for comfort. Applying ice can help reduce swelling and discomfort associated with engorgement in a woman who is not breastfeeding. Expressing milk manually would stimulate further milk production, which is not desired in this case. Wearing a tight bra could increase discomfort by putting pressure on the engorged breasts. Warm showers may actually increase swelling due to the vasodilation effect of heat.
4. What are the primary pathophysiological mechanisms responsible for ascites in liver failure?
- A. Decreased liver enzymes.
- B. Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation.
- C. High bilirubin levels.
- D. Fluid shifts due to decreased serum proteins.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Increased hydrostatic pressure in portal circulation. Ascites in liver failure is primarily caused by fluid shifts from the intravascular space to the interstitial space due to increased hydrostatic pressure in the portal circulation. Choice A is incorrect as ascites is not caused by decreased liver enzymes. Choice C is incorrect as high bilirubin levels are not the primary mechanism for ascites in liver failure. Choice D is incorrect as fluid shifts in ascites are due to decreased serum proteins, not increased serum proteins.
5. The nurse observes that a client’s wrist restraint is secured to the side rail of the bed. What action should the nurse take?
- A. Ensure that the restraint is snug against the client’s wrist.
- B. Reposition the restraint tie onto the bedframe.
- C. Double knot the restraint to ensure safety.
- D. Leave the restraint in place and notify the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to reposition the restraint tie onto the bedframe. Restraints should always be secured to the bedframe, not the side rails, to prevent injury to the client in case the bed is adjusted. Choice A is incorrect because the issue is with the attachment point, not the snugness of the restraint. Choice C is incorrect as double knotting the restraint does not address the incorrect attachment point. Choice D is incorrect as the nurse should not leave the restraint in the wrong position; instead, it should be moved to the correct location on the bedframe.
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