Nursing Elites

1. A child newly diagnosed with sickle cell anemia (SCA) is being discharged from the hospital. Which information is most important for the nurse to provide the parents prior to discharge?

• A. Nutritional guidelines to support blood health
• B. Signs of infection to monitor for
• C. When to give pain medication
• D. Instructions about how much fluid the child should drink daily

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Proper hydration is crucial in managing sickle cell anemia (SCA) as it helps prevent sickling of red blood cells and reduces blood viscosity, which can lead to painful crises. Ensuring the child drinks enough fluids is essential to maintain adequate hydration levels and reduce the risk of complications. While nutritional guidelines and recognizing signs of infection are important aspects of care, maintaining proper hydration is the most immediate and critical factor in managing SCA and preventing crises.

2. The nurse is preparing a female client for discharge after being treated for a urinary tract infection (UTI). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will use douches regularly to prevent future infections.
• B. I should drink at least 8 glasses of water a day.
• C. I should avoid tight-fitting clothing.
• D. I will wipe from front to back after using the toilet.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Using douches is not recommended as it can disrupt the natural flora and increase the risk of infections. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements that can help prevent UTIs. Drinking an adequate amount of water helps flush out bacteria, avoiding tight-fitting clothing promotes ventilation and reduces moisture, and wiping from front to back prevents the spread of bacteria from the anal region to the urethra.

3. The nurse is conducting intake interviews of children at a city clinic. Which child is most susceptible to lead poisoning?

• A. An 8-year-old who lives in a housing project.
• B. A 2-year-old who plays on aging playground equipment.
• C. An adolescent who works in a paint factory.
• D. A 10-year-old with Type 1 diabetes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. Young children, like the 2-year-old playing on aging playground equipment, are at higher risk of lead poisoning due to their hand-to-mouth behavior and exploration of their environment. Aging playground equipment may have lead-based paint that can be ingested by the child. While children living in housing projects are also at risk due to lead-based paint in older buildings, the 2-year-old child playing on potentially lead-contaminated playground equipment is the most susceptible in this scenario. The adolescent working in a paint factory may face occupational hazards related to lead exposure, but the immediate risk from environmental sources is higher for the 2-year-old. Type 1 diabetes in a 10-year-old is not directly linked to an increased susceptibility to lead poisoning.

4. A client is admitted with an epidural hematoma after a skateboarding accident. How should the nurse differentiate the vascular source of intracranial bleeding?

• A. Monitor for clear fluid leakage from the nose.
• B. Assess for rapid onset of decreased level of consciousness.
• C. Check for bruising around the head and neck.
• D. Assess for changes in pupil size and reactivity.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An epidural hematoma is characterized by a rapid onset of symptoms, including decreased level of consciousness, due to arterial bleeding, which differentiates it from other types of intracranial hemorrhage. Monitoring for clear fluid leakage from the nose (choice A) is more indicative of a basilar skull fracture and cerebrospinal fluid leak. Checking for bruising around the head and neck (choice C) is more suggestive of soft tissue injuries or facial fractures. Assessing for changes in pupil size and reactivity (choice D) is essential in evaluating traumatic brain injuries, but it is not specific to differentiating the vascular source of intracranial bleeding in an epidural hematoma.

5. A client on long-term corticosteroid therapy for rheumatoid arthritis presents with weakness and hypotension. What is the nurse's first action?

• A. Administer a PRN dose of corticosteroids.
• B. Place the client in a supine position.
• C. Encourage oral fluid intake.
• D. Review the client's recent medication history.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering a PRN dose of corticosteroids is the correct first action when a client on long-term corticosteroid therapy presents with weakness and hypotension. In this scenario, the client is likely experiencing adrenal insufficiency due to prolonged corticosteroid use. Administering corticosteroids promptly can help correct this insufficiency and improve the client's symptoms. Placing the client in a supine position may be necessary for symptomatic hypotension, but addressing the root cause with corticosteroids is more crucial initially. Encouraging oral fluid intake is important for many conditions but is not the priority in this case. Reviewing the client's recent medication history can provide valuable information but is not the first action needed to address the client's current presentation.

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