HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. What does the nurse's signature on the client’s surgical consent form signify?
- A. The client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done
- B. The client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment
- C. The client understands the risks and benefits associated with the procedure
- D. The client has signed the form freely and voluntarily
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's signature on a surgical consent form signifies that the client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done. This is the correct answer because the nurse's signature does not imply the client's competence, understanding of risks and benefits, or that the client signed the form freely and voluntarily. The nurse's role is to verify that the client has made an informed decision and is providing consent for the procedure.
2. The nurse is developing a plan of care for a client who reports tingling in the feet and who is newly diagnosed with peripheral vascular disease. Which outcome should the nurse include in the plan of care for this client?
- A. The client will walk 30 minutes three times a week
- B. The client will demonstrate understanding of proper shoe fit
- C. The client will perform foot care daily
- D. The client's blood pressure readings will be less than 160/90 mmHg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Controlling blood pressure is critical in managing peripheral vascular disease, as elevated pressure can exacerbate vascular damage and complications. While foot care, shoe fit, and exercise are important, lowering blood pressure is a primary goal. Proper blood pressure management helps in preventing further damage to the blood vessels and reduces the risk of complications associated with peripheral vascular disease, making it the most crucial outcome to include in the plan of care for this client.
3. Which statement made by the client indicates an understanding of the instructions regarding the administration of alendronate (Fosamax)?
- A. I will take the medication at bedtime to avoid stomach upset.
- B. I will take the medication with a full glass of water first thing in the morning.
- C. I will lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
- D. I will take the medication with food to reduce stomach irritation.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Alendronate (Fosamax) should be taken with a full glass of water in the morning to prevent esophageal irritation and ensure proper absorption. Choice A is incorrect because taking alendronate at bedtime increases the risk of esophageal irritation due to lying down. Choice C is incorrect because patients should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking alendronate to prevent esophageal irritation. Choice D is incorrect because alendronate should be taken on an empty stomach, not with food, to enhance absorption.
4. A client is admitted with a large bowel obstruction. What finding should the nurse report immediately?
- A. Absence of bowel sounds in all four quadrants.
- B. Abdominal distention with a firm, rigid abdomen.
- C. Frequent, small, liquid stools.
- D. Nausea and vomiting that worsens after meals.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Abdominal distention with a firm, rigid abdomen is a concerning sign that may indicate perforation, which requires immediate intervention. The rigidity suggests a complication of the large bowel obstruction. Absence of bowel sounds in all four quadrants, option A, is a common finding in a bowel obstruction but not as alarming as a rigid abdomen. Frequent, small, liquid stools, option C, are not typical findings in a large bowel obstruction; instead, constipation is more common. Nausea and vomiting that worsens after meals, option D, are also common symptoms of a bowel obstruction but do not indicate an immediate life-threatening complication like a perforation.
5. The psychiatric nurse is caring for clients in an adolescent unit. Which client requires the nurse's immediate attention?
- A. A 17-year-old client with schizophrenia who is pacing the hallways
- B. An 18-year-old client with antisocial behavior who is being yelled at by other clients
- C. A 16-year-old client with depression who refuses to eat meals
- D. A 15-year-old client with anxiety who is quietly reading in a corner
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The client with antisocial behavior being yelled at by peers may escalate the situation, potentially leading to violence or self-harm. Addressing the situation quickly helps prevent harm and de-escalates the conflict. Choices A, C, and D do not present immediate risks that require urgent intervention compared to the potential danger of a conflict escalating to violence with the client exhibiting antisocial behavior.
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