Nursing Elites

1. What does the nurse's signature on the client’s surgical consent form signify?

• A. The client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done
• B. The client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment
• C. The client understands the risks and benefits associated with the procedure
• D. The client has signed the form freely and voluntarily

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse's signature on a surgical consent form signifies that the client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done. This is the correct answer because the nurse's signature does not imply the client's competence, understanding of risks and benefits, or that the client signed the form freely and voluntarily. The nurse's role is to verify that the client has made an informed decision and is providing consent for the procedure.

2. A client with hyperkalemia is receiving insulin and glucose. Which laboratory value should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
• B. Monitor the client's sodium level.
• C. Monitor the client's calcium level.
• D. Monitor the client's potassium level.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor the client's potassium level. When administering insulin and glucose in hyperkalemia, the aim is to shift potassium from the bloodstream into the cells, lowering elevated levels. Therefore, monitoring potassium levels closely is essential to prevent hypokalemia or further complications. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice A) is important but not the priority in this scenario. Monitoring sodium (Choice B) and calcium levels (Choice C) is not directly related to the treatment of hyperkalemia with insulin and glucose.

3. A client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is prescribed warfarin. What lab value should the nurse review before administering the medication?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT)
• B. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H)
• C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International Normalized Ratio (INR). Before administering warfarin to a client with deep vein thrombosis, the nurse should review the INR to ensure the client is within the therapeutic range. INR is specifically monitored for patients on warfarin therapy to assess the clotting ability of the blood. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they are not the primary lab value used to monitor warfarin therapy. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to measure how long blood takes to clot. Hemoglobin and hematocrit (H&H) assess for anemia and the blood's oxygen-carrying capacity. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT) is used to monitor heparin therapy, not warfarin.

4. A male client with hypertension, who received new antihypertensive prescriptions at his last visit returns to the clinic two weeks later to evaluate his blood pressure (BP). His BP is 158/106, and he admits that he has not been taking the prescribed medication because the drugs make him feel bad. In explaining the need for hypertension control, the nurse should stress that an elevated BP places the client at risk for which pathophysiological condition?

• A. Stroke secondary to hemorrhage
• B. Myocardial infarction
• C. Heart failure
• D. Renal failure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Stroke is a major complication of uncontrolled hypertension. Elevated BP, especially at levels like 158/106, can cause damage to blood vessels in the brain, leading to a hemorrhagic stroke. Controlling BP is essential to prevent such life-threatening events. Myocardial infarction (choice B) is more commonly associated with coronary artery disease, while heart failure (choice C) and renal failure (choice D) can be complications of uncontrolled hypertension but are not directly related to the elevated BP leading to a hemorrhagic stroke.

5. An older client is admitted with fluid volume deficit and dehydration. Which assessment finding is the best indicator of hydration status?

• A. Urine specific gravity of 1.040.
• B. Systolic blood pressure decreases by 10 points when standing.
• C. The client denies feeling thirsty.
• D. Skin turgor exhibits tenting on the forearm.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the context of fluid volume deficit and dehydration, urine specific gravity of 1.040 is the best indicator of hydration status. High urine specific gravity indicates concentrated urine, suggesting dehydration. Choice B, systolic blood pressure decreasing when standing, is more indicative of orthostatic hypotension rather than hydration status. Choice C, denial of thirst, is a subjective finding and may not always reflect actual hydration status. Choice D, skin turgor exhibiting tenting on the forearm, is a sign of dehydration but may not be as accurate as urine specific gravity in assessing hydration status.

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