HESI RN
HESI 799 RN Exit Exam Capstone
1. What does the nurse's signature on the client’s surgical consent form signify?
- A. The client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done
- B. The client is competent to sign the consent without impairment of judgment
- C. The client understands the risks and benefits associated with the procedure
- D. The client has signed the form freely and voluntarily
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The nurse's signature on a surgical consent form signifies that the client voluntarily grants permission for the procedure to be done. This is the correct answer because the nurse's signature does not imply the client's competence, understanding of risks and benefits, or that the client signed the form freely and voluntarily. The nurse's role is to verify that the client has made an informed decision and is providing consent for the procedure.
2. A client reports that the skin around the edges of a wound is red and swollen. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Monitor for signs of infection
- B. Reinforce the wound dressing
- C. Contact the healthcare provider
- D. Apply a warm compress to the wound
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is to monitor for signs of infection. Redness and swelling around a wound are indicative of a potential infection. The priority intervention for the nurse is to closely monitor the wound for further signs of infection, such as increased drainage or fever. Reinforcing the wound dressing may be necessary, but it is not the priority when infection is suspected. Contacting the healthcare provider is important, but the nurse should first assess and monitor the wound to provide comprehensive information when contacting the provider. Applying a warm compress can potentially worsen the infection by promoting bacterial growth, so it is contraindicated in this situation.
3. A client has been receiving hydromorphone every six hours for four days. What assessment should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Increase the dosage of the medication.
- B. Auscultate bowel sounds.
- C. Monitor the client's blood pressure.
- D. Check the client's respiratory rate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Hydromorphone can cause constipation, a common side effect of opioids. Therefore, it is crucial to auscultate bowel sounds to monitor for signs of decreased gastrointestinal motility. Monitoring blood pressure (choice C) and respiratory rate (choice D) are important but not the priority in this scenario as constipation is a common issue with opioid use. Increasing the dosage of the medication (choice A) is not appropriate without assessing the client's bowel function first.
4. A client presents to the labor and delivery unit with a report of leaking fluid that is greenish-brown vaginal discharge. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
- B. Begin continuous fetal monitoring
- C. Check the amniotic fluid pH
- D. Assess maternal vital signs
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Greenish-brown discharge likely indicates meconium in the amniotic fluid, which poses a risk to the fetus. Continuous fetal monitoring should be initiated immediately to assess for signs of fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can lead to meconium aspiration syndrome in the newborn, so timely monitoring is crucial. Checking the amniotic fluid pH can help confirm the presence of meconium but is not the priority over fetal monitoring. Assessing maternal vital signs is important but secondary to monitoring the fetal well-being in this urgent situation. Notifying the healthcare provider can follow once the immediate fetal assessment is underway.
5. A client presents to the emergency department with a severe exacerbation of asthma. The nurse notes that the client is using accessory muscles to breathe and has an oxygen saturation of 86%. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the client in a high-Fowler's position
- B. Obtain a peak flow reading
- C. Administer a bronchodilator
- D. Administer oxygen therapy
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The first priority in an acute asthma exacerbation is to administer oxygen to improve the client's oxygen saturation. In this scenario, the client has a low oxygen saturation level of 86%, indicating hypoxemia, which can be life-threatening. Administering oxygen therapy will help improve oxygenation and support vital organ function. Once the oxygen levels are stabilized, further interventions such as bronchodilators can be implemented. Placing the client in a high-Fowler's position may also be beneficial, but ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence in this critical situation. Obtaining a peak flow reading is important for asthma management but is not the first intervention needed in a client with severe hypoxemia.
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