Nursing Elites

1. Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized edema on the right side of his head. The LPN/LVN knows that, in the newborn, an accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull which does not cross the suture line is a newborn variation known as

• A. a cephalhematoma, caused by birth trauma and may last up to 8 weeks.
• B. a subarachnoid hematoma, which requires immediate drainage to prevent further complications.
• C. molding, caused by pressure during labor and will disappear within 2 to 3 days.
• D. a subdural hematoma, which can result in lifelong damage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cephalhematoma is the accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull, often due to birth trauma, and typically resolves within weeks. It is a common finding in newborns and is not usually a cause for concern as it gradually resolves without specific treatment. Subarachnoid hematoma and subdural hematoma are different conditions that present with distinct characteristics and require different management strategies. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Subarachnoid hematoma is typically found in the subarachnoid space and requires immediate intervention, not just observation like cephalhematoma. Molding refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is a temporary change, not a collection of blood like in cephalhematoma. Subdural hematoma is located beneath the dura mater and is associated with significant complications, unlike the self-limiting nature of cephalhematoma.

2. A two-year-old child with heart failure (HF) is admitted for replacement of a graft for coarctation of the aorta. Prior to administering the next dose of digoxin (Lanoxin), the nurse obtains an apical heart rate of 128 bpm. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine the pulse deficit
• B. Administer the scheduled dose
• C. Calculate the safe dose range
• D. Review the serum digoxin level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to administer the scheduled dose of digoxin. A heart rate of 128 bpm in a two-year-old child with heart failure falls within the safe range for digoxin administration. It indicates that the child's heart rate is not excessively low, which could be a concern for administering digoxin. Therefore, proceeding with the scheduled dose is appropriate in this scenario. Determining the pulse deficit (Choice A) is not necessary in this situation as the heart rate is already obtained. Calculating the safe dose range (Choice C) is not required as the heart rate is within the safe range. Reviewing the serum digoxin level (Choice D) is not needed at this point since the heart rate indicates that administering the next dose is appropriate.

3. The client is 24 hours postpartum and is being discharged. The nurse explains that vaginal discharge will change from red to pink and then to white. If the client starts having red bleeding after the color changes, what should the nurse instruct the client to do?

• A. Reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider.
• B. Go to bed and assume a knee-chest position.
• C. Massage the uterus and go to the emergency room.
• D. Do not worry as this is a normal occurrence.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: If the client experiences red bleeding after the color changes, it may indicate possible hemorrhage or retained placental fragments, which require immediate attention. Instructing the client to reduce activity level and notify the healthcare provider is crucial for prompt evaluation and management of potential complications.

4. At 40-weeks gestation, a client presents to the obstetrical floor indicating that the amniotic membranes ruptured spontaneously at home. She is in active labor and feels the need to bear down and push. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?

• A. Color and consistency of fluid.
• B. Estimated amount of fluid.
• C. Any odor noted when membranes ruptured.
• D. Time the membranes ruptured.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The color and consistency of the amniotic fluid are crucial to assess for the presence of meconium, which may indicate fetal distress. Meconium-stained amniotic fluid can suggest fetal compromise and the need for further evaluation and monitoring. The estimated amount of fluid is less critical than assessing for meconium. While noting any odor when the membranes ruptured may provide some information, it is not as crucial as assessing for meconium. The time the membranes ruptured is important for documenting the timeline but does not directly impact immediate patient care like assessing for fetal distress.

5. After breastfeeding for 10 minutes at each breast, a new mother calls the nurse to the postpartum room to help change the newborn's diaper. As the mother begins the diaper change, the newborn spits up the breast milk. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Wipe away the spit-up and assist the mother with the diaper change.
• B. Sit the newborn upright and burp by rubbing or patting the upper back.
• C. Place the newborn in a position with the head lower than the feet.
• D. Turn the newborn to the side and use bulb suction for the mouth and nares.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: After a newborn spits up breast milk following feeding, the priority action for the nurse is to sit the newborn upright and burp by rubbing or patting the upper back. This position helps release trapped air and reduces the likelihood of further spit-up or aspiration. It is essential to address this first to prevent potential complications and ensure the newborn's comfort and safety.

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