Nursing Elites

1. Twenty-four hours after admission to the newborn nursery, a full-term male infant develops localized edema on the right side of his head. The LPN/LVN knows that, in the newborn, an accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull which does not cross the suture line is a newborn variation known as

• A. a cephalhematoma, caused by birth trauma and may last up to 8 weeks.
• B. a subarachnoid hematoma, which requires immediate drainage to prevent further complications.
• C. molding, caused by pressure during labor and will disappear within 2 to 3 days.
• D. a subdural hematoma, which can result in lifelong damage.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Cephalhematoma is the accumulation of blood between the periosteum and skull, often due to birth trauma, and typically resolves within weeks. It is a common finding in newborns and is not usually a cause for concern as it gradually resolves without specific treatment. Subarachnoid hematoma and subdural hematoma are different conditions that present with distinct characteristics and require different management strategies. Therefore, the correct answer is A. Subarachnoid hematoma is typically found in the subarachnoid space and requires immediate intervention, not just observation like cephalhematoma. Molding refers to the shaping of the fetal head during passage through the birth canal and is a temporary change, not a collection of blood like in cephalhematoma. Subdural hematoma is located beneath the dura mater and is associated with significant complications, unlike the self-limiting nature of cephalhematoma.

2. A couple has been trying to conceive for nine months without success. Which information obtained from the clients is most likely to have an impact on the couple's ability to conceive a child?

• A. Both partners have a daily exercise regimen that includes running four miles each morning.
• B. The couple has a history of having sexual intercourse 2 to 3 times per week.
• C. The woman's menstrual period occurs every 35 days.
• D. They use lubricants with each sexual encounter to decrease friction.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Using lubricants during sexual encounters can potentially impact the couple's ability to conceive a child. Some lubricants may contain substances that are spermicidal or alter the vaginal environment, affecting sperm motility and fertility.

3. A multiparous client with active herpes lesions is admitted to the unit with spontaneous rupture of membranes. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Obtain blood culture.
• B. Administer penicillin.
• C. Cover lesion with a dressing.
• D. Prepare her for cesarean section.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Active herpes lesions at the time of delivery increase the risk of neonatal transmission. The most appropriate action in this scenario is to prepare the client for a cesarean section. A cesarean section is often recommended to reduce the risk of neonatal transmission of herpes simplex virus during delivery, especially when active lesions are present. This intervention helps minimize direct contact between the newborn and the infected genital tract secretions, thereby decreasing the risk of transmission.

4. In assessing a 9-year-old boy admitted to the hospital with possible acute post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis (APSGN), what information is most significant to obtain in his history?

• A. Back pain for a few days
• B. A history of hypertension
• C. A sore throat last week
• D. Diuresis during the nights

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A recent sore throat is most significant in this case as it could indicate a preceding streptococcal infection, which is a crucial factor in diagnosing APSGN. Streptococcal infection often precedes APSGN, and recognizing this history is essential for appropriate management and treatment. Choices A, B, and D are less relevant in the context of APSGN. Back pain and diuresis are symptoms that may not directly correlate with APSGN, while a history of hypertension, although important in general health assessment, is not as specific to the current scenario compared to a recent sore throat.

5. A client at 18-weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?

• A. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) should be evaluated.
• B. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.
• C. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
• D. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level in a pregnant client can indicate potential congenital anomalies in the fetus. A follow-up sonogram is necessary to provide definitive results and further evaluate the fetus for any possible abnormalities. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to explain to the client that scheduling a sonogram is the next appropriate step to assess the fetal well-being and address any concerns regarding the elevated AFP level. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a repeat AFP test alone, discussing surgical correction of defects, or assuming the results are false without further evaluation are not appropriate responses when dealing with a potentially serious issue like elevated AFP levels in pregnancy.

Similar Questions