HESI RN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet
1. A client at 18-weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) should be evaluated.
- B. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.
- C. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
- D. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level in a pregnant client can indicate potential congenital anomalies in the fetus. A follow-up sonogram is necessary to provide definitive results and further evaluate the fetus for any possible abnormalities. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to explain to the client that scheduling a sonogram is the next appropriate step to assess the fetal well-being and address any concerns regarding the elevated AFP level. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a repeat AFP test alone, discussing surgical correction of defects, or assuming the results are false without further evaluation are not appropriate responses when dealing with a potentially serious issue like elevated AFP levels in pregnancy.
2. A newborn's parents tell the nurse that their baby is already trying to walk. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Encourage the parents to report this to the healthcare provider.
- B. Acknowledge the parents' observation.
- C. Schedule the newborn for further neurological testing.
- D. Explain the newborn’s normal stepping reflex.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When parents report that their newborn is trying to walk, the nurse should understand that newborns exhibit a stepping reflex, which is a normal developmental response. Explaining this reflex to the parents helps them understand that it is a typical behavior seen in newborns rather than true attempts to walk. Encouraging the parents to report this to the healthcare provider (Choice A) may cause unnecessary concern since the stepping reflex is a normal part of newborn development. Acknowledging the parents' observation (Choice B) is a good communication strategy but providing education on the normal reflex is essential. Scheduling the newborn for further neurological testing (Choice C) is not indicated in this scenario as the stepping reflex is a typical finding in newborns.
3. A client at 28 weeks gestation calls the antepartum clinic and reports experiencing a small amount of bright red vaginal bleeding without uterine contractions or abdominal pain. What instruction should the LPN/LVN provide?
- A. Come to the clinic today for an ultrasound.
- B. Go immediately to the emergency room.
- C. Lie on your left side for about one hour and see if the bleeding stops.
- D. Bring a urine specimen to the lab tomorrow to determine if you have a urinary tract infection.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Bright red vaginal bleeding without pain could indicate placental issues such as previa. An ultrasound is necessary to evaluate the cause. It is important to rule out potential serious conditions like placental previa, which can lead to further complications for both the mother and the fetus. Therefore, prompt evaluation through an ultrasound at the clinic is essential for appropriate management and ensuring the well-being of the client and her baby.
4. A 5-year-old child is admitted to the pediatric unit with fever and pain secondary to a sickle cell crisis. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?
- A. Obtain a culture of any sputum or wound drainage
- B. Initiate normal saline IV at 50 ml/hr
- C. Administer a loading dose of penicillin IM
- D. Administer the initial dose of folic acid PO
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In a child with a sickle cell crisis, the priority intervention is to initiate normal saline IV at 50 ml/hr to manage dehydration and help alleviate pain. This intervention helps improve hydration status and supports the circulation of sickled red blood cells, reducing the risk of vaso-occlusive episodes and associated pain. Obtaining a culture of any sputum or wound drainage (Choice A) may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Administering a loading dose of penicillin IM (Choice C) is important but not the first intervention. Administering the initial dose of folic acid PO (Choice D) is beneficial but does not address the immediate need for hydration in a sickle cell crisis.
5. A postpartum client who is Rh-negative refuses to receive RhoGAM after the delivery of an infant who is Rh-positive. Which information should the nurse provide this client?
- A. RhoGAM prevents maternal antibody formation for future Rh-positive babies.
- B. RhoGAM is not necessary unless all of her pregnancies are Rh-positive.
- C. The Rh-positive factor from the fetus threatens her blood cells.
- D. The mother should receive RhoGAM when the baby is Rh-negative.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. RhoGAM is administered to Rh-negative individuals after exposure to Rh-positive blood to prevent the development of antibodies that could harm future Rh-positive babies during subsequent pregnancies. By refusing RhoGAM after the delivery of an Rh-positive infant, the mother risks developing these antibodies, which could lead to hemolytic disease in future pregnancies with Rh-positive babies. Therefore, it is crucial for the nurse to explain to the client that receiving RhoGAM prevents the formation of maternal antibodies against Rh-positive blood, safeguarding the health of future babies. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B is incorrect because RhoGAM is necessary after exposure to Rh-positive blood, regardless of the Rh status of future pregnancies. Choice C is incorrect as it does not accurately convey the purpose of RhoGAM administration. Choice D is incorrect because RhoGAM is specifically given after exposure to Rh-positive blood, not when the baby is Rh-negative.
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