HESI RN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet
1. A client at 18-weeks gestation was informed this morning that she has an elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level. After the healthcare provider leaves the room, the client asks what she should do next. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Inform her that a repeat alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) should be evaluated.
- B. Discuss options for intrauterine surgical correction of congenital defects.
- C. Reassure the client that the AFP results are likely to be a false reading.
- D. Explain that a sonogram should be scheduled for definitive results.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An elevated alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) level in a pregnant client can indicate potential congenital anomalies in the fetus. A follow-up sonogram is necessary to provide definitive results and further evaluate the fetus for any possible abnormalities. Therefore, it is essential for the nurse to explain to the client that scheduling a sonogram is the next appropriate step to assess the fetal well-being and address any concerns regarding the elevated AFP level. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a repeat AFP test alone, discussing surgical correction of defects, or assuming the results are false without further evaluation are not appropriate responses when dealing with a potentially serious issue like elevated AFP levels in pregnancy.
2. The nurse is caring for a 5-year-old child with Reye’s syndrome. Which goal of treatment most clearly relates to caring for this child?
- A. Reduce cerebral edema and lower intracranial pressure
- B. Avert hypotension and septic shock
- C. Prevent cardiac arrhythmias and heart failure
- D. Promote kidney perfusion and normal blood pressure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Reducing cerebral edema and lowering intracranial pressure is the primary goal of treatment for Reye’s syndrome.
3. The client is 24 weeks gestation and reports increased thirst and urination. Which diagnostic test result should the nurse report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Hemoglobin A1C.
- B. Postprandial blood glucose test.
- C. Oral glucose tolerance test.
- D. Fasting blood glucose.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: An abnormal oral glucose tolerance test result is indicative of gestational diabetes. This test is crucial in diagnosing gestational diabetes as it evaluates how well the body processes glucose after a sugary drink. Reporting abnormal results promptly allows for timely intervention and management to ensure the well-being of both the mother and the baby. The other options are not the primary tests used to diagnose gestational diabetes. Hemoglobin A1C is not recommended for diagnosing gestational diabetes as it reflects long-term glucose control. Postprandial blood glucose and fasting blood glucose tests are not as sensitive as the oral glucose tolerance test for diagnosing gestational diabetes.
4. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?
- A. 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia.
- B. Periorbital edema, flashing lights, and aura.
- C. Epigastric pain in the third trimester.
- D. Recent decreased urinary output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.
5. An infant with tetralogy of Fallot becomes acutely cyanotic and hyperneic. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Place the infant in a knee-chest position.
- B. Administer morphine sulfate.
- C. Start intravenous fluids.
- D. Provide 100% oxygen by face mask.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In a tetralogy of Fallot situation, placing the infant in a knee-chest position is the initial priority to help increase systemic vascular resistance, which reduces the right-to-left shunt and improves oxygenation. This position can assist in optimizing oxygen levels before considering other interventions. Administering morphine sulfate (choice B) is not the first-line treatment for tetralogy of Fallot crisis. Starting intravenous fluids (choice C) may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Providing 100% oxygen by face mask (choice D) may not fully address the underlying issue of decreased systemic vascular resistance that leads to cyanosis in tetralogy of Fallot.
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