the nurse is reviewing a womans health care record during her first prenatal visit the client has a history of chickenpox as a child and syphilis as a the nurse is reviewing a womans health care record during her first prenatal visit the client has a history of chickenpox as a child and syphilis as a
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Nursing Elites

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HESI Maternity Test Bank

1. During a woman's first prenatal visit, the nurse reviews her health care record, noting a history of chickenpox as a child and syphilis as a teenager. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Obtaining blood and urine for prenatal screens is crucial in identifying any potential infections or conditions that may require monitoring throughout the pregnancy. Screening for infections such as syphilis is essential to ensure appropriate management and prevent adverse outcomes. This action helps in early detection and timely intervention, promoting the health and well-being of both the mother and the developing fetus. The other options, while important during prenatal care, are not as critical as obtaining prenatal screens to assess for any existing infections that could impact the pregnancy.

2. A nurse is providing care to a primigravida whose membranes spontaneously ruptured (ROM) 4 hours ago. Labor is to be induced. At the time of the ROM the vital signs were T-99.8 degrees F, P-84, R-20, BP-130/78, and fetal heart tones (FHT) 148 beats/min. Which assessment findings taken now may be an early indication that the client is developing a complication of labor?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Fetal heart rate elevation can indicate distress, making it an early sign of labor complications. Choices B, C, and D are not the best answers in this scenario. Choice B, an elevated temperature, could indicate infection but is not a direct sign of labor complications. Choice C, cervical dilation of 4 cm, is a normal part of labor progression for a primigravida. Choice D, a blood pressure of 138/88, falls within normal limits and is not an early indication of labor complications.

3. The healthcare provider provides teaching to a group of evacuees in a mass casualty center after a natural flooding disaster. Which information should the healthcare provider include in the teaching plan? (select one that does not apply.)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the aftermath of a flooding disaster, educating evacuees on proper hygiene practices like washing fruits and vegetables, taking prophylactic prescriptions, and practicing hand hygiene is crucial to prevent the spread of diseases. Option B, identifying sexual contacts, is not relevant to preventing post-disaster health risks and should not be included in the teaching plan.

4. A client with atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. What is the most important instruction the nurse should give?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Clients taking warfarin should avoid alcohol and over-the-counter medications without consulting their healthcare provider, as these can interact with warfarin and increase the risk of bleeding. Aspirin, in particular, can exacerbate this risk. Choice A is incorrect because taking warfarin with aspirin can increase the risk of bleeding. Choice B is incorrect as while green leafy vegetables contain vitamin K which can interact with warfarin, it is more important to maintain a consistent intake rather than increase it. Choice C is incorrect because foods high in potassium do not directly impact the bleeding risk associated with warfarin.

5. A healthcare provider is collecting data from a client who is receiving chemotherapy and is showing manifestations of malnutrition. Which of the following indicates a Vitamin C deficiency?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Swollen, bleeding gums are a classic sign of scurvy, which is caused by a deficiency in Vitamin C. Dry, red conjunctiva, inflammation of the tongue, and pale, brittle nails are not specific manifestations of Vitamin C deficiency, making them incorrect choices.

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