HESI RN
HESI Maternity Test Bank
1. When preparing a class on newborn care for expectant parents, what content should be taught concerning the newborn infant born at term gestation?
- A. Milia are white marks caused by sebaceous glands and typically resolve within 2 to 4 weeks.
- B. Meconium is the first stool and is typically dark green or black in color.
- C. Vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance mainly found in skin folds, providing a protective layer.
- D. Pseudostrabismus in newborns usually self-resolves without the need for intervention.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Vernix caseosa is a white, cheesy substance that acts as a protective barrier on the skin of newborns, particularly present in skin folds. It helps to prevent dehydration and protect the delicate skin of the newborn from the amniotic fluid in utero. Educating expectant parents about the presence and function of vernix caseosa can help them understand the importance of its preservation during the immediate postnatal period. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the protective function of vernix caseosa in newborns. Milia are small, white bumps on the skin due to blocked oil glands, meconium is the first stool of a newborn and is typically dark green or black in color, and pseudostrabismus refers to false appearance of misalignment of the eyes, which usually resolves on its own without intervention.
2. The nurse assumes care for a patient who is currently receiving a dose of intravenous vancomycin (Vancocin) infusing at 20 mg/min. The nurse notes red blotches on the patient’s face, neck, and chest and assesses a blood pressure of 80/55 mm Hg. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Request an order for IV epinephrine to treat anaphylactic shock.
- B. Slow the infusion to 10 mg/min and observe the patient closely.
- C. Stop the infusion and obtain an order for a BUN and serum creatinine.
- D. Suspect Stevens-Johnson syndrome and notify the provider immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When vancomycin is infused too rapidly, “red man” syndrome may occur; the rate should be 10 mg/min to prevent this. This is a toxic reaction, not an allergic one, so epinephrine is not indicated. Stevens-Johnson syndrome is characterized by a rash and fever. Red man syndrome is not related to renal function.
3. An older adult who recently began self-administration of insulin calls the nurse daily to review the steps that should be taken when giving an injection. The nurse has assessed the client's skills during two previous office visits and knows that the client is capable of giving the daily injection. Which response by the nurse is likely to be most helpful in encouraging the client to assume total responsibility for the daily injections?
- A. I know you are capable of giving yourself the insulin.
- B. Giving yourself the injection seems to make you nervous.
- C. When I watched you give yourself the injection, you did it correctly.
- D. Tell me what you want me to do to help you give yourself the injection at home.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because focusing on the client's demonstrated ability to self-administer the injection is likely to reinforce his level of competence without sounding punitive. By acknowledging the client's correct performance during the self-injection, the nurse can boost the client's confidence, encouraging him to assume total responsibility for the daily injections. Choices A, B, and D do not directly highlight the client's competence in self-administration, which may not be as effective in promoting independent self-care.
4. A healthcare professional assesses a young adult in the emergency room following a motor vehicle accident. Which of the following neurological signs is of most concern?
- A. Flaccid paralysis
- B. Pupils fixed and dilated
- C. Diminished spinal reflexes
- D. Reduced sensory responses
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Pupils fixed and dilated. Fixed and dilated pupils are a critical neurological sign that indicates severe neurological damage or brain herniation, posing a significant concern for the patient's condition. Flaccid paralysis (choice A) typically indicates lower motor neuron injury, while diminished spinal reflexes (choice C) and reduced sensory responses (choice D) may suggest various neurological issues but are not as acutely concerning as fixed and dilated pupils in this scenario.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client who has returned from surgery. Which finding requires immediate intervention?
- A. Heart rate of 90 beats per minute.
- B. Oxygen saturation of 92%.
- C. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).
- D. Pain at the surgical site.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A temperature of 99°F (37.2°C) in a postoperative client requires immediate intervention as it may indicate the presence of infection. Elevated temperature post-surgery can be a sign of surgical site infection or systemic infection, which can lead to serious complications if not addressed promptly. Monitoring and managing a fever in a postoperative client is crucial to prevent further complications. The other findings, such as a heart rate of 90 beats per minute, oxygen saturation of 92%, and pain at the surgical site, are common postoperative assessments that may not necessarily require immediate intervention unless they are significantly out of normal range or causing severe distress to the client.