a client at 32 weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion
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1. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.

2. Which physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A pulse rate of 56 bpm is a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum. Bradycardia (pulse rate 50-70 bpm) can be a normal postpartum occurrence due to increased stroke volume and decreased cardiac output after delivery. Unilateral lower leg pain and saturating two perineal pads per hour are not normal findings and require further assessment. A soft, spongy fundus could indicate uterine atony, which is abnormal postpartum.

3. A client receiving oxytocin (Pitocin) to augment early labor. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to obtain each time the infusion rate is increased?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client is receiving oxytocin to augment labor, the most crucial assessment for the nurse to obtain each time the infusion rate is increased is monitoring the contraction pattern. Increasing the infusion rate of oxytocin can lead to stronger and more frequent contractions, which can have implications for both the mother and the baby. Monitoring the contraction pattern helps ensure the safe administration of oxytocin and allows for timely interventions if needed.

4. In planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation experiencing preterm labor, what maternal prescription is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory syndrome?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The administration of Betamethasone (Celestone) is crucial in cases of preterm labor to promote fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Betamethasone helps enhance the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, improving their functionality and decreasing the likelihood of respiratory complications upon birth. Butorphanol is an analgesic and not indicated for preventing respiratory syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for infection prevention and treatment, not for fetal lung maturation. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to inhibit contractions, but it does not have a direct effect on fetal lung maturity.

5. A client is admitted to the postpartum unit and tells the nurse she had rheumatic fever as a child, which resulted in some 'heart damage'. The nurse knows that this client is at particular risk for developing heart failure during the immediate postpartum period. Based on the client's history, which nursing problem has the highest priority?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Fluid volume excess is a priority concern in this client, as heart damage from rheumatic fever can impair the heart's ability to manage increased blood volume postpartum, leading to potential heart failure. Monitoring and managing fluid volume status are crucial to prevent complications in this high-risk client. Choices A, B, and C are not the highest priority in this situation. Nausea and vomiting, risk for infection, and sleep deprivation are important but do not pose an immediate threat to the client's physiologic stability compared to the risk of heart failure due to fluid volume excess.

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