a client at 32 weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Maternity Test Bank

1. A client at 32-weeks gestation is diagnosed with preeclampsia. Which assessment finding is most indicative of an impending convulsion?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In a client with preeclampsia, 3+ deep tendon reflexes and hyperreflexia are indicative of severe preeclampsia. These neurological signs suggest an increased risk for seizures, making option A the most indicative of an impending convulsion. Choices B, C, and D are not directly associated with an impending convulsion in a client with preeclampsia.

2. The client delivered hours ago and has a boggy uterus displaced above and to the right of the umbilicus. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A boggy uterus that is displaced above and to the right of the umbilicus may indicate a full bladder, which can impede uterine contraction and lead to hemorrhage. Encouraging the client to void helps relieve pressure on the uterus, promoting better contraction and preventing postpartum hemorrhage.

3. Why is complete bedrest necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Complete bedrest is necessary for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III to reduce the workload on the heart, lower oxygen consumption, and prevent complications associated with cardiac conditions like mitral stenosis. By remaining in bed, the client can help maintain cardiac function and promote a safer pregnancy outcome. Choice B is incorrect as it does not provide a specific reason related to the client's medical condition. Choice C is not addressing the medical necessity of bedrest for this particular client. Choice D is irrelevant and does not explain the importance of bedrest for a pregnant client with mitral stenosis Class III.

4. In developing a teaching plan for expectant parents, the nurse plans to include information about when the parents can expect the infant's fontanels to close. The LPN/LVN bases the explanation on knowledge that for the normal newborn, the

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The anterior fontanel typically closes between 12 to 18 months, while the posterior fontanel usually closes by the end of the second month. It is important for parents to know these timeframes as it helps in monitoring the normal growth and development of their newborn. Delayed closure of fontanels may indicate potential health issues, and early closure may also warrant further evaluation by healthcare providers.

5. A client who had her first baby three months ago and is breastfeeding her infant tells the nurse that she is currently using the same diaphragm that she used before becoming pregnant. What information should the nurse provide this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should advise the client to use an alternative form of contraception until a new diaphragm that fits correctly post-pregnancy is obtained. It is essential to ensure proper fit for effective contraception, making it crucial to use an alternative method until the diaphragm is resized.

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