HESI RN
HESI Maternity 55 Questions Quizlet
1. Assessment findings of a 4-hour-old newborn include: axillary temperature of 96.8°F (35.8°C), heart rate of 150 beats/minute with a soft murmur, irregular respiratory rate at 64 breaths/minute, jitteriness, hypotonia, and weak cry. Based on these findings, which action should the nurse implement?
- A. Swaddle the infant in a warm blanket.
- B. Obtain a heel stick blood glucose level.
- C. Place a pulse oximeter on the heel.
- D. Document the findings in the record.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The assessment findings in the newborn, such as jitteriness, weak cry, and hypotonia, are indicative of potential hypoglycemia. To confirm this suspicion, the nurse should obtain a heel stick blood glucose level, which is the most appropriate action in this situation. Checking the blood glucose level will provide crucial information to determine the newborn's glucose status and guide further management if hypoglycemia is confirmed. Swaddling the infant in a warm blanket does not address the underlying issue of potential hypoglycemia and may not effectively raise the blood glucose level. Placing a pulse oximeter on the heel is not indicated for assessing hypoglycemia. Documenting the findings in the record is important but does not address the immediate concern of assessing and managing potential hypoglycemia.
2. In planning care for a client at 30-weeks gestation experiencing preterm labor, what maternal prescription is most important in preventing this fetus from developing respiratory syndrome?
- A. Betamethasone (Celestone) 12mg deep IM.
- B. Butorphanol 1mg IV push q2h PRN pain.
- C. Ampicillin 1g IV push q8h.
- D. Terbutaline (Brethine) 0.25mg subcutaneously q15 minutes x3.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The administration of Betamethasone (Celestone) is crucial in cases of preterm labor to promote fetal lung maturation and reduce the risk of respiratory distress syndrome in the newborn. Betamethasone helps enhance the production of surfactant in the fetal lungs, improving their functionality and decreasing the likelihood of respiratory complications upon birth. Butorphanol is an analgesic and not indicated for preventing respiratory syndrome in preterm infants. Ampicillin is an antibiotic used for infection prevention and treatment, not for fetal lung maturation. Terbutaline is a tocolytic agent used to inhibit contractions, but it does not have a direct effect on fetal lung maturity.
3. A couple has been trying to conceive for nine months without success. Which information obtained from the clients is most likely to have an impact on the couple's ability to conceive a child?
- A. Both partners have a daily exercise regimen that includes running four miles each morning.
- B. The couple has a history of having sexual intercourse 2 to 3 times per week.
- C. The woman's menstrual period occurs every 35 days.
- D. They use lubricants with each sexual encounter to decrease friction.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Using lubricants during sexual encounters can potentially impact the couple's ability to conceive a child. Some lubricants may contain substances that are spermicidal or alter the vaginal environment, affecting sperm motility and fertility.
4. The healthcare provider prescribes terbutaline (Brethine) for a client in preterm labor. Before initiating this prescription, it is most important for the LPN/LVN to assess the client for which condition?
- A. Gestational diabetes.
- B. Elevated blood pressure.
- C. Urinary tract infection.
- D. Swelling in lower extremities.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Gestational diabetes. Terbutaline (Brethine) is known to cause hyperglycemia, so it is crucial to assess for gestational diabetes before administering it. Assessing for elevated blood pressure (choice B), urinary tract infection (choice C), or swelling in lower extremities (choice D) is not directly related to the potential side effect of terbutaline in causing hyperglycemia.
5. A client who is 32 weeks' gestation comes to the women's health clinic and reports nausea and vomiting. On examination, the nurse notes that the client has an elevated blood pressure. Which action should the nurse implement next?
- A. Inspect the client's face for edema.
- B. Ascertain the frequency of headaches.
- C. Evaluate for a history of cluster headaches.
- D. Observe and time the client's contractions.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Inspecting the client's face for edema is crucial to assess for preeclampsia, a serious condition characterized by high blood pressure during pregnancy. Edema, particularly facial edema, can be a significant indicator of preeclampsia, prompting the need for further evaluation and management to ensure the well-being of both the client and the unborn child.
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