Nursing Elites

1. In a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse would be correct in withholding a dose of digoxin without specific instruction from the healthcare provider if the client's

• A. serum digoxin level is 1.5 ng/mL.
• B. blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg.
• C. serum potassium level is 3 mEq/L.
• D. apical pulse is 68/min.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hypokalemia can precipitate digitalis toxicity in individuals on digoxin, increasing the risk of dangerous dysrhythmias. A serum potassium level of 3 mEq/L is below the normal range (3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L) and indicates hypokalemia, which can potentiate the effects of digoxin. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the potential for digitalis toxicity. Serum digoxin level of 1.5 ng/mL is within the therapeutic range, blood pressure of 104/68 mmHg is not a contraindication for administering digoxin, and an apical pulse of 68/min is within the normal range and not a reason to withhold digoxin.

2. An older female client has normal saline infusing at 45 mL/hour. She complains of pain at the insertion site of the IV catheter. There is no redness or edema around the IV site. Which action should the nurse take?

• A. Determine which IV medications have recently been administered.
• B. Explain that without redness or edema, there is no need to re-start the IV.
• C. Consult with the healthcare provider about the best location to start a new IV.
• D. Convert the IV to a saline lock and continue to monitor the site.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Converting the IV to a saline lock and continuing to monitor the site is the correct action in this scenario. When a client complains of pain at the IV insertion site without redness or edema, it may indicate phlebitis or irritation. Replacing the IV may not be necessary if there are no signs of infection or infiltration. Determining the IV medications administered or consulting with the healthcare provider to start a new IV are not immediate actions required for pain management at the insertion site. Therefore, the most appropriate intervention is to convert the IV to a saline lock and closely observe for any changes or complications.

3. A client who has just undergone a skin biopsy is listening to discharge instructions from the nurse. The nurse determines that the client has misunderstood the directions if the client indicates that as part of aftercare he plans to:

• A. Use the antibiotic ointment as prescribed
• B. Return in 7 days to have the sutures removed
• C. Apply cool compresses to the site twice a day for 20 minutes
• D. Call the physician if excessive drainage from the wound occurs

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Applying cool compresses to the site twice a day for 20 minutes is not a recommended aftercare practice for a skin biopsy. After a skin biopsy, it is important to keep the dressing dry and in place for a minimum of 8 hours. Choice A is correct as using the antibiotic ointment as prescribed is a common post-biopsy instruction to prevent infection. Choice B is also correct as returning in 7 days to have the sutures removed is part of the typical follow-up care after a skin biopsy. Choice D is correct as it is important to call the physician if excessive drainage from the wound occurs to prevent complications.

4. A male client expresses concern about how a hypophysectomy will affect his sexual function. Which of the following statements provides the most accurate information about the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy?

• A. Removing the source of excess hormone should restore the client's libido, erectile function, and fertility.
• B. Potency will be restored, but the client will remain infertile.
• C. Fertility will be restored, but impotence and decreased libido will persist.
• D. Exogenous hormones will be needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the most accurate statement regarding the physiologic effects of hypophysectomy on sexual function. The client's sexual problems are directly related to excessive hormone levels. Removing the source of excess hormone secretion through hypophysectomy should allow the client to return to a normal physiologic pattern, which includes restoring libido, erectile function, and fertility. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Choice B incorrectly states that the client will remain infertile, which is not necessarily true after a hypophysectomy. Choice C inaccurately suggests that fertility will be restored while impotence and decreased libido will persist, which is not aligned with the expected outcomes of hypophysectomy. Choice D is incorrect because exogenous hormones are typically not needed to restore erectile function after the adenoma is removed; rather, the removal of the source of excessive hormone secretion should address the sexual function concerns.

5. The client with chronic renal failure is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following is the most important action for the nurse to take?

• A. Administer the prescribed antibiotics.
• B. Monitor for signs of infection.
• C. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
• D. Monitor the client's weight daily.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Monitoring for signs of infection is crucial in clients undergoing peritoneal dialysis. Peritonitis is a severe complication associated with peritoneal dialysis, making it essential to promptly identify any signs of infection, such as abdominal pain, cloudy dialysate, fever, and an elevated white blood cell count. Administering antibiotics without proper assessment can lead to antibiotic resistance and should not be the initial action. Encouraging increased fluid intake may not be appropriate without assessing the client's fluid status. Monitoring weight alone does not address the immediate risk of peritonitis in a client undergoing peritoneal dialysis.

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