Nursing Elites

1. In a client with congestive heart failure, the nurse would be correct in withholding a dose of digoxin without specific instruction from the healthcare provider if the client's

• A. serum digoxin level is 1.5 ng/mL.
• B. blood pressure is 104/68 mmHg.
• C. serum potassium level is 3 mEq/L.
• D. apical pulse is 68/min.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Hypokalemia can precipitate digitalis toxicity in individuals on digoxin, increasing the risk of dangerous dysrhythmias. A serum potassium level of 3 mEq/L is below the normal range (3.5 to 5.5 mEq/L) and indicates hypokalemia, which can potentiate the effects of digoxin. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the potential for digitalis toxicity. Serum digoxin level of 1.5 ng/mL is within the therapeutic range, blood pressure of 104/68 mmHg is not a contraindication for administering digoxin, and an apical pulse of 68/min is within the normal range and not a reason to withhold digoxin.

2. In the change-of-shift report, the nurse is told that a client has a Stage 2 pressure ulcer. Which ulcer appearance is most likely to be observed?

• A. Shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed.
• B. A deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues.
• C. An area of erythema that is painful to touch.
• D. Visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A Stage 2 pressure ulcer typically presents as a shallow open ulcer with a red-pink wound bed. This appearance is characteristic of a Stage 2 pressure ulcer where there is partial thickness skin loss involving the epidermis and possibly the dermis. Choice B, a deep pocket of infection and necrotic tissues, is more indicative of a Stage 3 or Stage 4 pressure ulcer where the ulcer extends into deeper tissue layers. Choice C, an area of erythema that is painful to touch, is more commonly seen in early-stage pressure ulcers such as Stage 1. Choice D, visible subcutaneous tissue with sloughing, is characteristic of a more severe stage of pressure ulcer beyond Stage 2.

3. Prior to a percutaneous kidney biopsy, which actions should a nurse take? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Keep the client NPO for 4 to 6 hours.
• B. Obtain coagulation study results.
• C. Maintain strict bedrest in a supine position.
• D. A & B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Prior to a percutaneous kidney biopsy, the nurse should ensure that the client is kept NPO for 4 to 6 hours to prevent aspiration during the procedure. Obtaining coagulation study results is crucial to assess the risk of bleeding during and after the biopsy. Strict bedrest in a supine position is not necessary before the procedure. It is important to note that blood pressure medications should be carefully managed, but it is not a pre-procedure action. Keeping the client on bedrest or assessing for blood in the urine are interventions that are more relevant post-procedure to monitor for complications.

4. A client admitted from a nursing home after several recent falls needs a urine sample for culture and sensitivity. What should the nurse complete first?

• A. Obtain urine sample for culture and sensitivity.
• B. Administer intravenous antibiotics.
• C. Encourage protein intake and additional fluids.
• D. Consult physical therapy for gait training.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority intervention is to obtain a urine sample for culture and sensitivity. Older adults with recent falls may have atypical symptoms of urinary tract infection (UTI), which can present as new-onset confusion or falling. It is crucial to rule out UTI before initiating antibiotics. While administering antibiotics, encouraging protein intake, fluids, and consulting physical therapy are important interventions, they should follow the urine sample collection to ensure accurate diagnosis and appropriate treatment.

5. The client admitted with peripheral vascular disease (PVD) asks the nurse why her legs hurt when she walks. The nurse bases a response on the knowledge that the main characteristic of PVD is:

• A. Decreased blood flow.
• B. Increased blood flow.
• C. Slow blood flow.
• D. Thrombus formation.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Decreased blood flow.' In peripheral vascular disease (PVD), there is a narrowing or blockage of blood vessels, leading to reduced blood flow to the extremities. This decreased blood flow results in inadequate oxygen supply to the muscles, causing pain, especially during physical activity when oxygen demand increases. Choice B, 'Increased blood flow,' is incorrect because PVD is characterized by impaired blood circulation rather than increased flow. Choice C, 'Slow blood flow,' is not precise as PVD involves a more significant reduction in blood flow. Choice D, 'Thrombus formation,' is related to the formation of blood clots within vessels, which can be a complication of PVD but is not its main characteristic.

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