HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. To reduce the risk of pulmonary complications for a client with ALS, which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Perform chest physiotherapy
- B. Teach the client breathing exercises
- C. Initiate passive range of motion exercises
- D. Establish a regular bladder routine
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Performing chest physiotherapy is the most appropriate intervention to reduce the risk of pulmonary complications in clients with ALS. Chest physiotherapy helps mobilize and clear respiratory secretions, improving lung function and reducing the risk of complications such as pneumonia. Teaching breathing exercises (Choice B) may be beneficial for some clients, but chest physiotherapy is more specifically targeted at managing pulmonary issues in ALS. Initiating passive range of motion exercises (Choice C) and establishing a regular bladder routine (Choice D) are important interventions in ALS care but are not directly related to reducing the risk of pulmonary complications.
2. A client with chronic renal failure is prescribed a low-protein diet. The nurse should explain to the client that the purpose of this diet is to:
- A. Prevent fluid overload.
- B. Reduce the workload on the kidneys.
- C. Prevent dehydration.
- D. Maintain electrolyte balance.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Reduce the workload on the kidneys.' A low-protein diet is prescribed for clients with chronic renal failure to decrease the production of urea and other nitrogenous wastes, which can accumulate in the body when the kidneys are not functioning properly. This reduction in protein intake helps to lessen the burden on the kidneys, as they may have difficulty in filtering and excreting waste products. Choice A is incorrect because fluid overload is more related to restrictions in fluid intake rather than protein intake. Choice C is incorrect as a low-protein diet does not directly prevent dehydration. Choice D is incorrect because while electrolyte balance is essential in renal failure, the primary purpose of a low-protein diet is to reduce the workload on the kidneys by limiting the production of waste products.
3. The nurse is caring for a patient who is ordered to receive PO trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) 160/800 QID to treat a urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. The nurse will contact the provider to clarify the correct
- A. dose.
- B. drug.
- C. frequency.
- D. route.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is 'frequency.' Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is typically prescribed to be taken twice daily, not four times a day (QID). The dose, drug, and route are already specified in the order, so the nurse should contact the provider to clarify the frequency of administration to ensure optimal treatment for the urinary tract infection caused by E. coli. Choosing 'dose' is incorrect because the dose of 160/800 is already provided in the order. 'Drug' is incorrect because the medication Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is explicitly stated in the prescription. 'Route' is incorrect as PO (by mouth) is also clearly indicated in the prescription.
4. A middle-aged adult with a family history of CAD has the following: total cholesterol 198 (11 mmol/L); LDL cholesterol 120 (6.7 mmol/L); HDL cholesterol 58 (3.2 mmol/L); triglycerides 148 (8.2 mmol/L); blood sugar 102 (5.7 mmol/L); and C-reactive protein (CRP) 4.2. The health care provider prescribes a statin medication and aspirin. The client asks the nurse why these medications are needed. Which is the best response by the nurse?
- A. The labs indicate severe hyperlipidemia and the medications will lower your LDL, along with a low-fat diet.
- B. The triglycerides are elevated and will not return to normal without these medications.
- C. The CRP is elevated indicating inflammation seen in cardiovascular disease, which can be lowered by the medications prescribed.
- D. These medications will reduce the risk of type 2 diabetes.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: CRP is a marker of inflammation, which is elevated in cardiovascular disease. Statins and aspirin help lower CRP and reduce the risk of heart attacks and strokes.
5. During nasotracheal suctioning, which of the following observations should be cause for concern to the nurse? Select all that apply.
- A. The client becomes cyanotic.
- B. Secretions are bloody.
- C. The client gags during the procedure.
- D. Clear to opaque secretions are removed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During nasotracheal suctioning, the client gagging during the procedure is a cause for concern as it can indicate discomfort or potential airway obstruction. Cyanosis, bloody secretions, or the removal of clear to opaque secretions are expected observations that the nurse should monitor for, but gagging indicates a need for immediate intervention to ensure the safety and comfort of the client. Cyanosis and bloody secretions can signify oxygenation issues and potential complications, while the removal of secretions is the goal of the suctioning procedure.
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