Nursing Elites

1. A patient is diagnosed with Mycoplasma pneumonia. Which antibiotic will the nurse expect the provider to order to treat this infection?

• A. Azithromycin (Zithromax)
• B. Clarithromycin (Biaxin)
• C. Erythromycin (E-Mycin)
• D. Fidaxomicin (Dificid)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Erythromycin is the drug of choice for treating Mycoplasma pneumonia. Mycoplasma pneumonia is typically sensitive to macrolide antibiotics, with erythromycin being one of the first-line agents. Azithromycin and clarithromycin are also effective in treating Mycoplasma pneumonia, but erythromycin is specifically mentioned as the drug of choice in this context. Fidaxomicin, on the other hand, is not indicated for the treatment of Mycoplasma pneumonia and is primarily used to treat Clostridium difficile infections.

2. A client who was in a motor vehicle collision was admitted to the hospital, and the right knee was placed in skeletal traction. The nurse has documented this nursing diagnosis in the client's medical record: 'Potential for impairment of skin integrity related to immobility from traction.' Which nursing intervention is indicated based on this diagnosis statement?

• A. Release the traction every 4 hours to provide skin care.
• B. Turn the client for back care while suspending traction.
• C. Provide back and skin care while maintaining the traction.
• D. Give back care after the client is released from traction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct nursing intervention indicated based on the nursing diagnosis 'Potential for impairment of skin integrity related to immobility from traction' is to provide back and skin care while maintaining the traction. This intervention is crucial for maintaining the client's skin integrity and preventing potential complications. Releasing the traction every 4 hours (Choice A) may disrupt the treatment plan and compromise the effectiveness of traction. Turning the client for back care while suspending traction (Choice B) does not address the need for skin care while the client is in traction. Giving back care after the client is released from traction (Choice D) neglects the immediate need to prevent skin impairment while in traction. Therefore, providing back and skin care while maintaining the traction (Choice C) is the most appropriate intervention in this scenario.

3. The healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s chart prior to administering gentamicin (Garamycin) and notes that the last serum peak drug level was 9 mcg/mL and the last trough level was 2 mcg/mL. What action will the healthcare professional take?

• A. Administer the next dose as prescribed.
• B. Obtain repeat peak and trough levels before administering the next dose.
• C. Report potential drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider.
• D. Notify the patient’s healthcare provider of decreased drug therapeutic level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Gentamicin peak levels should ideally be between 5 to 8 mcg/mL, and trough levels should be within the range of 0.5 to 2 mcg/mL to ensure therapeutic efficacy while minimizing toxicity risk. In this case, the patient's peak level is above the recommended range, and the trough level is at the higher end, indicating potential drug toxicity. Therefore, the correct action for the healthcare professional is to report the possibility of drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider. Administering the next dose as prescribed (Choice A) would exacerbate the toxicity risk. Obtaining repeat peak and trough levels (Choice B) may confirm the current levels but does not address the immediate concern of potential toxicity. Reporting a decreased drug therapeutic level (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario, as the focus should be on addressing the potential toxicity issue.

4. A client with cholelithiasis is admitted with jaundice due to obstruction of the common bile duct. Which finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Distended, hard, and rigid abdomen
• B. Clay-colored stool
• C. Radiating sharp pain in the right shoulder
• D. Bile-stained emesis

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important finding for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider in a client with cholelithiasis and jaundice due to common bile duct obstruction is a distended, hard, and rigid abdomen. These signs may indicate a possible surgical emergency, such as a complication like gallbladder perforation or peritonitis, which require immediate intervention. Clay-colored stool is associated with obstructive jaundice but does not indicate an acute surgical emergency. Radiating sharp pain in the right shoulder (referred pain from the diaphragm) and bile-stained emesis may also be seen in cholelithiasis but are not as urgent as a distended, hard, and rigid abdomen.

5. A nurse assesses clients on the medical-surgical unit. Which client is at greatest risk for bladder cancer?

• A. A 25-year-old female with a history of sexually transmitted diseases
• B. A 42-year-old male who has worked in a lumber yard for 10 years
• C. A 55-year-old female who has had numerous episodes of bacterial cystitis
• D. An 86-year-old male with a 50–pack-year cigarette smoking history

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The greatest risk factor for bladder cancer is a long history of tobacco use, which is reflected in an 86-year-old male with a 50–pack-year cigarette smoking history. Smoking is a well-established risk factor for developing bladder cancer. Choices A, B, and C are not directly linked to an increased risk of bladder cancer. While sexually transmitted diseases, certain occupational exposures, and recurrent urinary tract infections may pose other health risks, they are not specifically associated with an elevated risk of bladder cancer.

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