Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of type 1 diabetes Mellitus (DM) and asthma is readmitted to the unit for the third time in two months with a current fasting blood sugar (FBS) of 325mg/dl (18mmol/L SI). The client describes to the nurse not understanding why the blood glucose level continues to be out of control. Which interventions should the nurse implement?

• A. Have the client describe a typical day at work, home, and social activities
• B. Determine if the client is using a new insulin needle for each administration
• C. Evaluate the client's asthma medications that can elevate blood glucose
• D. Have the client demonstrate the technique used to monitor blood glucose levels

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to have the client describe a typical day at work, home, and social activities. By understanding the client's daily routine, the nurse can gain valuable insights into lifestyle factors that may be impacting blood glucose control. This information is essential for identifying potential triggers or patterns contributing to the elevated blood sugar levels. Option B, determining if the client is using a new insulin needle for each administration, focuses more on the technical aspect of insulin delivery and is not directly related to daily activities affecting blood glucose levels. Option C, evaluating the client's asthma medications that can elevate blood glucose, could be relevant but is not as directly linked to the client's lifestyle choices as option A. Option D, having the client demonstrate the technique for monitoring blood glucose levels, is important for assessing their skills but does not provide information on daily activities that may be influencing blood sugar levels.

2. A client with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) asks, “Will my children develop this disease?” How should the nurse respond?

• A. No genetic link is known, so your children are not at increased risk.
• B. Your sons will develop this disease because it has a sex-linked gene.
• C. Only if both you and your spouse are carriers of this disease.
• D. Each of your children has a 50% risk of having ADPKD.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Children whose parent has the autosomal dominant form of PKD have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene that causes the disease. ADPKD is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait and therefore is not gender-specific. Both parents do not need to have this disorder. Choice A is incorrect because ADPKD has a known genetic link and a definitive mode of inheritance. Choice B is incorrect as ADPKD is not sex-linked but autosomal dominant. Choice C is incorrect because ADPKD follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern and does not require both parents to be carriers for the child to inherit the disease.

3. Which client is at greatest risk for coronary artery disease?

• A. A 32-year-old female with mitral valve prolapse who quit smoking 10 years ago.
• B. A 43-year-old male with a family history of CAD and a cholesterol level of 158 (8.8 mmol/L).
• C. A 56-year-old male with an HDL of 60 (3.3 mmol/L) who takes atorvastatin.
• D. A 65-year-old female who is obese with an LDL of 188 (10.4 mmol/L).

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The 65-year-old female who is obese with a high LDL level of 188 (10.4 mmol/L) is at the greatest risk for coronary artery disease. Obesity and high LDL cholesterol levels are significant risk factors for developing coronary artery disease. While factors like mitral valve prolapse (choice A) and a family history of CAD (choice B) can contribute to the risk, they are not as significant as obesity and high LDL levels. Choice C, a 56-year-old male with high HDL and taking atorvastatin, is actually at lower risk due to the high HDL levels and being on statin therapy, which helps reduce cholesterol levels and lower the risk of coronary artery disease.

4. In a patient with pneumonia, what is the primary goal of treatment?

• A. Reducing inflammation.
• B. Eliminating the infection.
• C. Reducing pain.
• D. Preventing complications.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The primary goal of treating pneumonia is to eliminate the infection. Antibiotics are commonly used to target the specific pathogen causing pneumonia. While reducing inflammation and preventing complications are important aspects of treatment, the key focus initially is on eradicating the infectious agent to improve the patient's condition and prevent further spread of the infection.

5. What is the priority assessment for a patient receiving intravenous morphine?

• A. Assessing the patient's blood pressure.
• B. Monitoring the patient's respiratory rate.
• C. Checking the patient's pain level.
• D. Monitoring the patient's oxygen saturation.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is monitoring the patient's respiratory rate. When a patient receives intravenous morphine, the priority assessment is to monitor the respiratory rate due to the risk of respiratory depression associated with morphine. This assessment helps in detecting and managing any potential respiratory complications promptly. Assessing blood pressure, checking pain level, and monitoring oxygen saturation are important aspects of patient care but are not the priority when considering the specific risk of respiratory depression with intravenous morphine.

Similar Questions