HESI RN
RN Medical/Surgical NGN HESI 2023
1. A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is being discharged. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Take your blood pressure every morning.
- B. Weigh yourself at the same time each day.
- C. Contact your provider if you have visual disturbances.
- D. All of the above
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) should be educated on monitoring their blood pressure daily and weighing themselves consistently to detect any changes promptly. It is essential to contact the healthcare provider if visual disturbances occur, as this could indicate a complication such as a berry aneurysm associated with PKD. Foul-smelling or bloody urine should also prompt notification to the provider as they could signify urinary tract infections or glomerular injury. Choices A, B, and C are correct as they address crucial aspects of managing PKD and its potential complications. Choices A and B help in monitoring for changes in blood pressure and fluid status, while choice C focuses on detecting possible neurological complications. Choices A, B, and C are relevant to PKD management and should be included in the client's discharge teaching. Choices that mention diarrhea and renal stones are not directly associated with PKD; therefore, teaching related to these conditions would be irrelevant in this context.
2. Which of the following lab results is most indicative of dehydration?
- A. Low sodium levels.
- B. Elevated creatinine levels.
- C. Low potassium levels.
- D. High blood glucose levels.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Elevated creatinine levels are indicative of dehydration because when the body is dehydrated, the kidneys concentrate urine to preserve fluid, leading to higher levels of creatinine. Low sodium levels (Choice A) can be seen in conditions like hyponatremia but are not specific to dehydration. Low potassium levels (Choice C) are more commonly associated with conditions like hypokalemia. High blood glucose levels (Choice D) are typically seen in diabetes and are not specific indicators of dehydration.
3. The healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s chart prior to administering gentamicin (Garamycin) and notes that the last serum peak drug level was 9 mcg/mL and the last trough level was 2 mcg/mL. What action will the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the next dose as prescribed.
- B. Obtain repeat peak and trough levels before administering the next dose.
- C. Report potential drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider.
- D. Notify the patient’s healthcare provider of decreased drug therapeutic level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Gentamicin peak levels should ideally be between 5 to 8 mcg/mL, and trough levels should be within the range of 0.5 to 2 mcg/mL to ensure therapeutic efficacy while minimizing toxicity risk. In this case, the patient's peak level is above the recommended range, and the trough level is at the higher end, indicating potential drug toxicity. Therefore, the correct action for the healthcare professional is to report the possibility of drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider. Administering the next dose as prescribed (Choice A) would exacerbate the toxicity risk. Obtaining repeat peak and trough levels (Choice B) may confirm the current levels but does not address the immediate concern of potential toxicity. Reporting a decreased drug therapeutic level (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario, as the focus should be on addressing the potential toxicity issue.
4. A female client taking oral contraceptives reports to the nurse that she is experiencing calf pain. What action should the nurse implement?
- A. Determine if the client has also experienced breast tenderness and weight gain.
- B. Encourage the client to begin a regular, daily program of walking and exercise.
- C. Advise the client to notify the healthcare provider for immediate medical attention.
- D. Tell the client to stop taking the medication for a week to see if symptoms subside.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Calf pain is indicative of thrombophlebitis, a serious, life-threatening complication associated with the use of oral contraceptives which requires further assessment and possibly immediate medical intervention.
5. Prior to administering tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), the nurse should assess the client for which of the following contraindications to administering the drug?
- A. Age over 60 years.
- B. History of cerebral hemorrhage.
- C. History of heart failure.
- D. Cigarette smoking.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: History of cerebral hemorrhage. A history of cerebral hemorrhage is a contraindication to t-PA administration because of the increased risk of bleeding. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. Age over 60 years is not a contraindication for t-PA administration. While older age may pose some risks, it is not an absolute contraindication. History of heart failure is not a direct contraindication to t-PA administration. Cigarette smoking, while a risk factor for cardiovascular disease, is not a specific contraindication for t-PA administration.
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