Nursing Elites

1. A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) is being discharged. Which statements should the nurse include in this client’s discharge teaching? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Take your blood pressure every morning.
• B. Weigh yourself at the same time each day.
• C. Contact your provider if you have visual disturbances.
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A client with polycystic kidney disease (PKD) should be educated on monitoring their blood pressure daily and weighing themselves consistently to detect any changes promptly. It is essential to contact the healthcare provider if visual disturbances occur, as this could indicate a complication such as a berry aneurysm associated with PKD. Foul-smelling or bloody urine should also prompt notification to the provider as they could signify urinary tract infections or glomerular injury. Choices A, B, and C are correct as they address crucial aspects of managing PKD and its potential complications. Choices A and B help in monitoring for changes in blood pressure and fluid status, while choice C focuses on detecting possible neurological complications. Choices A, B, and C are relevant to PKD management and should be included in the client's discharge teaching. Choices that mention diarrhea and renal stones are not directly associated with PKD; therefore, teaching related to these conditions would be irrelevant in this context.

2. The client with chronic renal failure is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Hemoglobin level.
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level.
• C. Serum potassium level.
• D. Creatinine level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The serum potassium level should be monitored closely in clients undergoing hemodialysis due to the risk of hyperkalemia. Hemodialysis is used to remove waste products and excess electrolytes like potassium from the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because an imbalance can lead to serious cardiac complications, making it the priority value to monitor in this scenario. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important for anemia assessment in chronic renal failure but is not directly related to hemodialysis. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels (choice B) and creatinine levels (choice D) are commonly monitored in renal function tests but are not the top priority for monitoring in a client undergoing hemodialysis.

3. A healthcare professional is reviewing the results of renal function testing in a client with renal calculi. Which finding indicates to the healthcare professional that the client’s blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level is within the normal range?

• A. 2 mg/dL
• B. 18 mg/dL
• C. 25 mg/dL
• D. 35 mg/dL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The normal BUN ranges from 5 to 20 mg/dL. A BUN level of 18 mg/dL falls within this normal range. Values of 25 and 35 mg/dL are elevated, suggesting potential renal insufficiency. Choice A (2 mg/dL) is abnormally low and not indicative of a normal BUN level.

4. A client with acute glomerulonephritis (GN) is being evaluated by a nurse. Which manifestation should the nurse recognize as a positive response to the prescribed treatment?

• A. The client has lost 11 pounds in the past 10 days.
• B. The client’s urine specific gravity is 1.048.
• C. No blood is observed in the client’s urine.
• D. The client’s blood pressure is 152/88 mm Hg.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A weight loss of 11 pounds in the past 10 days indicates fluid loss, a positive response to treatment for acute glomerulonephritis. It signifies that the glomeruli are functioning adequately to filter excess fluid. A urine specific gravity of 1.048 is high, indicating concentrated urine, which is not a positive response in this context. Blood in the urine is not a typical finding in glomerulonephritis, so its absence is expected and does not indicate a positive response to treatment. A blood pressure of 152/88 mm Hg is elevated and may suggest kidney damage or fluid overload, which are not positive responses to treatment.

5. Alteplase recombinant, or tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), a thrombolytic enzyme, is administered during the first 6 hours after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) to:

• A. Control chest pain.
• B. Reduce coronary artery vasospasm.
• C. Control the arrhythmias associated with MI.
• D. Revascularize the blocked coronary artery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alteplase recombinant, or t-PA, is a thrombolytic enzyme used to dissolve clots and revascularize the blocked coronary artery in patients experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). Administering t-PA within the first 6 hours of MI onset is crucial to restore blood flow to the affected area and minimize cardiac tissue damage. Therefore, the correct answer is to revascularize the blocked coronary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while controlling chest pain, reducing coronary artery vasospasm, and managing arrhythmias are important goals in managing MI, the primary purpose of administering t-PA within the first 6 hours is to restore blood flow by dissolving clots and revascularizing the blocked coronary artery.

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