Nursing Elites

1. A client presents with a fungal urinary tract infection (UTI). Which assessments should the nurse complete? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Palpate the kidneys and bladder.
• B. Assess the medical history and current medical problems.
• C. Perform a bladder scan to assess post-void residual.
• D. Inquire about recent travel to foreign countries.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client with a fungal UTI, the nurse should prioritize gathering information related to the medical history and current medical problems. Clients who are severely immunocompromised or have conditions like diabetes mellitus are more susceptible to fungal UTIs. Assessing the medical history helps identify risk factors and potential causes of the infection. While physical examinations like palpating the kidneys and bladder and performing a bladder scan may be necessary, they should follow the initial assessment of medical history. Inquiring about recent travel to foreign countries is less relevant in the context of a fungal UTI, as the focus should be on immediate medical factors predisposing the client to the infection.

2. The client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in the left lower leg is receiving heparin therapy. Which of the following assessments is the most important for the nurse to perform?

• A. Measure the circumference of the left leg.
• B. Assess for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or hematuria.
• C. Monitor the client's vital signs.
• D. Monitor the client's respiratory status.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The most important assessment for a client with DVT on heparin therapy is to monitor for signs of bleeding, such as bruising or hematuria. Heparin is an anticoagulant medication that can increase the risk of bleeding. Assessing for bleeding is crucial to prevent complications like hemorrhage. Measuring the circumference of the leg may be relevant for assessing for edema but is not as critical as monitoring for bleeding. Monitoring vital signs and respiratory status are important aspects of care but are not the priority when the client is on heparin therapy for DVT.

3. A nurse cares for clients with urinary incontinence. Which types of incontinence are correctly paired with their clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Stress incontinence – Urine loss with physical exertion
• B. Urge incontinence – Large amount of urine with each occurrence
• C. Overflow incontinence – Constant dribbling of urine
• D. All of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, as all the choices are correctly paired with their clinical manifestations. Stress incontinence is characterized by urine loss with physical exertion, coughing, sneezing, or exercising. Urge incontinence presents with a sudden and strong urge to void, often accompanied by a large amount of urine released during each occurrence. Overflow incontinence occurs when the bladder is distended, leading to a constant dribbling of urine. Functional incontinence, not mentioned in the options, is the leakage of urine due to factors unrelated to a lower urinary tract disorder. Reflex incontinence, also not mentioned, is a condition resulting from abnormal detrusor contractions.

4. A client has made an appointment for her annual Papanicolaou test (a.k.a. Pap smear). The nurse who schedules the appointment should tell the client that:

• A. The test cannot be performed while the client is menstruating
• B. Vaginal douching is required at least 24 hours before the test
• C. Spicy foods should not be eaten on the day of the test
• D. The test has absolutely no discomfort associated with it

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Pap smear cannot be performed with accurate results during menstruation. Menstrual blood may interfere with the test results. Choice B is incorrect as vaginal douching should be avoided for at least 24 hours before the test to prevent altering the cervical cells. Choice C is incorrect as there is no restriction on spicy foods before a Pap smear. Choice D is incorrect as some women may experience mild discomfort during the test, although it is generally well-tolerated.

5. Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

• A. Increased lung compliance.
• B. Decreased lung elasticity.
• C. Increased respiratory rate.
• D. Increased lung expansion.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased lung elasticity. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is characterized by a loss of lung elasticity, which leads to difficulty in exhaling air. This decreased elasticity results in air becoming trapped in the lungs, making it challenging for the individual to breathe effectively. Choice A is incorrect as COPD is associated with decreased lung compliance, not increased compliance. Choice C is incorrect as individuals with COPD often have a decreased respiratory rate due to impaired lung function. Choice D is incorrect as COPD causes limited lung expansion due to factors like air trapping and hyperinflation.

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