Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider plans to administer diazepam, 4 mg IV push, to a client with severe anxiety. How many milliliters should the healthcare provider administer? (Round to the nearest tenth.)

• A. 0.2 mL
• B. 0.8 mL
• C. 1.25 mL
• D. 2.0 mL

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to administer, use the formula (1 mL × 4 mg) / 5 mg = 0.8 mL. The healthcare provider should administer 0.8 mL of diazepam for a dosage of 4 mg IV push. Choice A is incorrect because it results from an incorrect calculation. Choices C and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided dosage.

2. After hemodialysis, a client with a history of chronic renal failure has just returned to the unit. What is the most important assessment for the nurse to make?

• A. Auscultate the client's lung sounds.
• B. Assess the client's blood pressure.
• C. Monitor the client's weight.
• D. Check the client's fistula for bruit and thrill.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most crucial assessment for the nurse to make after hemodialysis in a client with chronic renal failure is to check the client's fistula for bruit and thrill (D). This assessment is essential to ensure the patency of the fistula and adequate blood flow. Auscultating lung sounds (A), assessing blood pressure (B), and monitoring weight (C) are important assessments but are secondary to evaluating the fistula. Checking the fistula is vital as it directly impacts the effectiveness of the client's dialysis treatment and the patency of the vascular access, ensuring successful dialysis sessions.

3. During the digital removal of a fecal impaction, the nurse should stop the procedure and take corrective action if which client reaction is noted?

• A. Temperature increases from 98.8° to 99.0° F.
• B. Pulse rate decreases from 78 to 52 beats/min.
• C. Respiratory rate increases from 16 to 24 breaths/min.
• D. Blood pressure increases from 110/84 to 118/88 mmHg.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: During digital removal of a fecal impaction, a vagal response can occur due to stimulation of the anal sphincter. If the client experiences bradycardia (pulse rate decreases), the nurse should stop the procedure immediately and take corrective action to prevent any complications. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not indicate a vagal response, which is the expected adverse reaction during this procedure.

4. The father of an 11-year-old client reports to the nurse that the client has been 'wetting the bed' since the passing of his mother and is concerned. Which action is most important for the nurse to take?

• A. Reassure the father that it is normal for a child to wet the bed after a traumatic event
• B. Inform the father that nocturnal emissions are abnormal and his son is developmentally delayed
• C. Inform the father that it is crucial to let the son know that bedwetting is a normal response to trauma
• D. Refer the father and the client to a psychologist

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Bedwetting after trauma, such as losing a parent, is common in children. The nurse should inform the father that it is crucial to let the son know that bedwetting is a normal response to trauma. Reassurance and understanding are essential in addressing the child's emotional needs during this difficult time. Choice A is incorrect as it focuses on puberty rather than trauma as the underlying cause. Choice B is incorrect as it provides inaccurate information about nocturnal emissions and developmental delay. Choice D is premature as the first step should be to provide education and support before considering a referral to a psychologist.

5. A client with stage 4 lung cancer receiving in-home hospice care expresses concerns about pain while the nurse is arranging for discharge. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Explain the potential respiratory issues associated with morphine use.
• B. Educate the family on assessing the effectiveness of analgesics.
• C. Suggest requesting a patient-controlled analgesic (PCA) pump from the healthcare provider.
• D. Provide the client with a schedule for around-the-clock prescribed analgesic use.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In managing pain for a client with stage 4 lung cancer in hospice care, providing a schedule for around-the-clock prescribed analgesic use is essential. This approach ensures continuous pain control and helps prevent breakthrough pain. By having a consistent dosing schedule, the client can maintain a more stable level of pain relief, enhancing their comfort and quality of life during this critical time.

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