the nurse explains to an older adult male the procedure for collecting a 24 hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance which action is most importan
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1. The nurse explains to an older adult male the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Which action is most important for the nurse to include in their care plan for the shift?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To ensure accurate creatinine clearance results, it is crucial to collect all urine within the 24-hour period. The process should begin with discarding the first specimen and then collecting all subsequent urine in the designated 24-hour collection container. This ensures that the sample is complete and accurate for the creatinine clearance calculation.

2. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary instruction for a client taking warfarin is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Consuming foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, can antagonize the effects of warfarin, potentially leading to treatment inefficacy or fluctuations in anticoagulation levels. Therefore, clients on warfarin therapy should be advised to avoid foods high in vitamin K to maintain the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables (choice B) would introduce more vitamin K, consuming a consistent amount of foods high in potassium (choice C) is not directly related to warfarin therapy, and limiting high-protein foods (choice D) is not a specific concern for clients on warfarin therapy.

3. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the client’s respiratory function?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Arterial blood gases (ABGs) are the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor respiratory function in a client with pneumonia. ABGs provide valuable information on oxygenation status, acid-base balance, and how well the lungs are exchanging gases. This information helps in assessing the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation, guiding treatment decisions, and evaluating the overall respiratory status of the client.

4. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which assessment finding is most concerning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: A respiratory rate of 28 breaths per minute (D) is most concerning because it indicates respiratory distress and requires immediate intervention. While coarse crackles (A), fever (B), and productive cough (C) are common findings in pneumonia, a high respiratory rate signifies a more severe condition that needs prompt attention to prevent respiratory failure. Monitoring the respiratory rate is crucial in assessing the severity of respiratory distress in pneumonia, as it can rapidly progress to respiratory failure if not managed promptly.

5. Which nonverbal action should be implemented to demonstrate active listening?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To demonstrate active listening effectively, it is essential to display open and engaging body language. Sitting facing the individual helps convey attentiveness and a willingness to listen. Maintaining eye contact further enhances the connection and shows respect and interest in the conversation. Crossing arms and legs can create a barrier and signal defensiveness or disinterest. Avoiding eye contact may suggest a lack of engagement or attentiveness. Leaning back in the chair can indicate relaxation but might be perceived as disengagement. Therefore, the most appropriate nonverbal action to demonstrate active listening is to sit facing the individual and maintain eye contact.

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