the nurse explains to an older adult male the procedure for collecting a 24 hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance which action is most importan
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1. The nurse explains to an older adult male the procedure for collecting a 24-hour urine specimen for creatinine clearance. Which action is most important for the nurse to include in their care plan for the shift?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: To ensure accurate creatinine clearance results, it is crucial to collect all urine within the 24-hour period. The process should begin with discarding the first specimen and then collecting all subsequent urine in the designated 24-hour collection container. This ensures that the sample is complete and accurate for the creatinine clearance calculation.

2. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. Which laboratory test result should the nurse monitor to evaluate the client’s respiratory function?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Arterial blood gases (ABGs) are the most appropriate laboratory test to monitor respiratory function in a client with pneumonia. ABGs provide valuable information on oxygenation status, acid-base balance, and how well the lungs are exchanging gases. This information helps in assessing the effectiveness of ventilation and oxygenation, guiding treatment decisions, and evaluating the overall respiratory status of the client.

3. The healthcare provider selects the best site for insertion of an IV catheter in the client's right arm. Which documentation should the healthcare provider use to identify placement of the IV access?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Right cephalic vein. The cephalic vein is a large, superficial vein located on the radial side of the forearm, making it the preferred site for IV access. It is often the best choice for insertion of an IV catheter due to its accessibility and low risk of complications, such as infiltration. Documenting the use of the right cephalic vein for IV access is crucial for accurate and safe patient care. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because the left brachial vein, the dorsal side of the right wrist, and the right upper extremity are not typically preferred sites for IV catheter insertion and may not provide optimal access or outcomes.

4. A client is admitted with a diagnosis of left-sided heart failure. Which assessment finding is most consistent with this diagnosis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Orthopnea (D) is most consistent with left-sided heart failure. It is characterized by difficulty breathing when lying flat and is relieved by sitting up or standing. Dependent edema (A), ascites (B), and nocturia (C) are more commonly associated with right-sided heart failure. Dependent edema refers to swelling due to fluid accumulation, ascites is the accumulation of fluid in the peritoneal cavity, and nocturia is the excessive need to urinate during the night, all of which are more indicative of right-sided heart failure.

5. When discussing dietary preferences with a client adhering to a vegan diet, which dietary supplement should the nurse encourage the client to include in the dietary plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vitamin B12 is an essential nutrient predominantly found in animal products. Individuals following a vegan diet, which excludes animal products, are at a higher risk of vitamin B12 deficiency. Encouraging the client to include a vitamin B12 supplement in their dietary plan is crucial to prevent deficiency-related health issues. Choices A, B, and C are not specific to addressing the deficiency that vegan diets may cause. Fiber, folate, and ascorbic acid are important but do not directly address the risk of vitamin B12 deficiency in vegan diets.

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