Nursing Elites

1. Urinary catheterization is prescribed for a postoperative female client who has been unable to void for 8 hours. The nurse inserts the catheter, but no urine is seen in the tubing. Which action will the nurse take next?

• A. Clamp the catheter and recheck it in 60 minutes.
• B. Pull the catheter back 3 inches and redirect it upward.
• C. Leave the catheter in place and reattempt with another catheter.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of a possible obstruction.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, if no urine is seen in the tubing after inserting the catheter, it is likely that the catheter is in the vagina rather than the bladder. Leaving the first catheter in place will help locate the meatus more easily when attempting the second catheterization. This approach ensures correct placement of the catheter in the bladder and minimizes the risk of causing unnecessary discomfort or trauma to the patient.

2. The healthcare professional is monitoring a client receiving IV potassium chloride. Which assessment finding should prompt the healthcare professional to immediately stop the infusion?

• A. The client reports pain at the IV site
• B. The client’s heart rate is irregular
• C. The client has swelling at the IV site
• D. The client’s blood pressure is elevated

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An irregular heart rate is a critical sign of hyperkalemia, a serious condition that can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Stopping the infusion promptly is crucial to prevent further complications. The healthcare professional should inform the healthcare provider immediately for further evaluation and management. Choice A is incorrect because pain at the IV site is common and may not necessitate stopping the infusion. Choice C is incorrect as swelling at the IV site may indicate a local reaction but is not a reason to stop the infusion. Choice D is incorrect as an elevated blood pressure alone is not a direct indication to stop the infusion of IV potassium chloride.

3. An older adult male client is admitted to the medical unit following a fall at home. When undressing him, the nurse notes that he is wearing an adult diaper, and skin breakdown is obvious over his sacral area. What action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Establish a toileting schedule to decrease episodes of incontinence
• B. Complete a functional assessment of the client’s self-care abilities
• C. Apply a barrier ointment to intact areas that may be exposed to moisture
• D. Determine the size and depth of skin breakdown over the sacral area

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The initial step the nurse should take when faced with skin breakdown over the sacral area of the client is to determine the size and depth of the affected area. Assessing and documenting these aspects are crucial before initiating any treatment. This evaluation will guide the nurse in developing an appropriate care plan to address the skin breakdown effectively. Options A, B, and C are not the first steps to take in this situation. While establishing a toileting schedule and completing a functional assessment are important, assessing the size and depth of the skin breakdown is the priority to initiate proper treatment. Applying a barrier ointment without assessing the extent of the breakdown may not address the underlying issue effectively.

4. When emptying 350 mL of pale yellow urine from a client's urinal, the nurse notes that this is the first time the client has voided in 4 hours. Which action should the nurse take next?

• A. Record the amount on the client's fluid output record.
• B. Encourage the client to increase oral fluid intake.
• C. Notify the healthcare provider of the findings.
• D. Palpate the client's bladder for distention.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should record the amount on the client's fluid output record because the 350 mL of pale yellow urine is a normal finding. This indicates appropriate urine output, so encouraging increased fluid intake or notifying the healthcare provider is not necessary at this time. Additionally, palpating the client's bladder for distention is not indicated based on the normal urine output observed.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing several clients prior to surgery. Which factor in a client's history poses the greatest threat for complications to occur during surgery?

• A. Taking birth control pills for the past 2 years
• B. Taking anticoagulants for the past year
• C. Recently completing antibiotic therapy
• D. Having taken laxatives PRN for the last 6 months

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Anticoagulants increase the risk of bleeding during surgery, which can lead to complications such as excessive bleeding and difficulty in achieving hemostasis. This poses a significant threat during a surgical procedure where controlling bleeding is crucial for a successful outcome. The other options (A, C, D) are not as critical as anticoagulants in terms of posing a threat for complications during surgery. Birth control pills, recently completing antibiotic therapy, and using laxatives do not directly impact bleeding risks during surgery compared to anticoagulants.

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