Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
• B. Increase intake of leafy green vegetables
• C. Consume a consistent amount of foods high in potassium
• D. Limit intake of high-protein foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary instruction for a client taking warfarin is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Consuming foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, can antagonize the effects of warfarin, potentially leading to treatment inefficacy or fluctuations in anticoagulation levels. Therefore, clients on warfarin therapy should be advised to avoid foods high in vitamin K to maintain the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables (choice B) would introduce more vitamin K, consuming a consistent amount of foods high in potassium (choice C) is not directly related to warfarin therapy, and limiting high-protein foods (choice D) is not a specific concern for clients on warfarin therapy.

2. While instructing a male client's wife in the performance of passive range-of-motion exercises to his contracted shoulder, the nurse observes that she is holding his arm above and below the elbow. What nursing action should the nurse implement?

• A. Acknowledge that she is supporting the arm correctly.
• B. Encourage her to keep the joint uncovered to maintain warmth.
• C. Reinforce the need to grip directly under the joint for better support.
• D. Instruct her to grip directly over the joint for better motion.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The wife is correctly performing the passive range-of-motion exercises by holding the arm above and below the elbow. The nurse should acknowledge this correct technique (A). It is essential to keep the joint uncovered (B) during exercises, while ensuring the rest of the body remains covered for warmth and privacy. Choices (C) and (D) do not provide optimal support to the joint for effective movement.

3. During a client assessment, the healthcare provider is evaluating cranial nerve function. Which assessment finding suggests that cranial nerve II is intact?

• A. The client can hear a whisper from 1 to 2 feet away.
• B. The client can identify an object by touch.
• C. The client can shrug the shoulders against resistance.
• D. The client can read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The ability to read a Snellen chart from 20 feet away indicates intact cranial nerve II (optic nerve), responsible for vision. Hearing a whisper (A) is associated with cranial nerve VIII (vestibulocochlear nerve), identifying an object by touch (B) is related to cranial nerves V (trigeminal nerve) and VII (facial nerve), and shoulder shrugging against resistance (C) is a test for cranial nerve XI (accessory nerve). Thus, the correct answer is D as it specifically tests the function of cranial nerve II.

4. The client is weak from inactivity due to a 2-week hospitalization. In planning care for the client, which range of motion (ROM) exercises should the nurse include?

• A. Passive ROM exercises to all joints on all extremities four times a day.
• B. Active ROM exercises to both arms and legs two or three times a day.
• C. Active ROM exercises with weights twice a day, 20 repetitions each.
• D. Passive ROM exercises to the point of resistance and slightly beyond.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Active ROM exercises are preferred over passive ROM to restore strength. Performing them on both arms and legs two or three times a day is effective in promoting muscle strength and mobility without the need for external assistance. Choice A is incorrect as passive ROM exercises may not help in restoring strength. Choice C is not recommended as using weights may be too strenuous for a weak client. Choice D is incorrect as passive ROM exercises to the point of resistance and slightly beyond may cause discomfort or injury to the weak client.

5. A client with a diagnosis of asthma is receiving albuterol (Proventil) via a metered-dose inhaler (MDI). Which assessment finding indicates that the medication is effective?

• A. Increased oxygen saturation.
• B. Decreased respiratory rate.
• C. Absence of audible wheezing.
• D. Improved exercise tolerance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Increased oxygen saturation (A) is the most direct indicator of the effectiveness of albuterol (Proventil) in improving breathing. Oxygen saturation reflects the amount of oxygen in the blood, showing that the albuterol is helping with air exchange in the lungs. While decreased respiratory rate (B), absence of audible wheezing (C), and improved exercise tolerance (D) are positive outcomes, they are secondary to oxygen saturation. Oxygen saturation directly reflects the improvement in the client's respiratory status and the effectiveness of the medication.

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