Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). Which dietary instruction should the nurse include?

• A. Avoid foods high in vitamin K
• B. Increase intake of leafy green vegetables
• C. Consume a consistent amount of foods high in potassium
• D. Limit intake of high-protein foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct dietary instruction for a client taking warfarin is to avoid foods high in vitamin K. Warfarin is an anticoagulant that works by inhibiting vitamin K-dependent clotting factors. Consuming foods high in vitamin K, such as leafy green vegetables, can antagonize the effects of warfarin, potentially leading to treatment inefficacy or fluctuations in anticoagulation levels. Therefore, clients on warfarin therapy should be advised to avoid foods high in vitamin K to maintain the effectiveness of the medication. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because increasing leafy green vegetables (choice B) would introduce more vitamin K, consuming a consistent amount of foods high in potassium (choice C) is not directly related to warfarin therapy, and limiting high-protein foods (choice D) is not a specific concern for clients on warfarin therapy.

2. A client with a diagnosis of renal failure is receiving hemodialysis. Which assessment finding should the nurse report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. The client's blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg.
• B. The client gains 1 kg in 24 hours.
• C. The client's potassium level is 5.5 mEq/L.
• D. The client's weight decreases by 0.5 kg in 24 hours.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A potassium level of 5.5 mEq/L (C) is elevated and concerning in a client with renal failure receiving hemodialysis, as it can lead to life-threatening cardiac arrhythmias. Monitoring blood pressure (A), weight gain (B), and weight loss (D) are essential in clients on hemodialysis, but an elevated potassium level poses an immediate risk that requires prompt intervention.

3. After abdominal surgery, an adult is now alert and oriented. What position is most appropriate for the client?

• A. Semi-Fowler's
• B. Prone
• C. Supine
• D. Sim's

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate position for a client following abdominal surgery is Semi-Fowler's. This position promotes greater thoracic expansion and reduces pressure on the suture line, aiding in respiratory function and preventing strain on the incision site. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Prone position (Choice B) would not be suitable after abdominal surgery as it can put pressure on the abdomen. Supine position (Choice C) may cause discomfort and strain on the incision area. Sim's position (Choice D) is primarily used for rectal exams and enemas, which are unrelated to the needs post-abdominal surgery.

4. What intervention should the healthcare provider include in the plan of care for a client receiving treatment with an Unna's paste boot for leg ulcers due to chronic venous insufficiency?

• A. Check capillary refill of toes on the lower extremity with the Unna's paste boot.
• B. Apply dressing to the wound area before applying the Unna's paste boot.
• C. Wrap the leg from the knee down towards the foot.
• D. Remove the Unna's paste boot every 8 hours to assess wound healing.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When an Unna's paste boot is applied for leg ulcers due to chronic venous insufficiency, it is crucial to check the capillary refill of the toes on the lower extremity to ensure adequate circulation. The Unna's paste boot can become rigid after drying, potentially affecting circulation distally. Monitoring capillary refill helps assess the perfusion status of the distal extremity and ensures that the treatment is not compromising circulation to the toes.

5. During the assessment, a client receiving a continuous infusion of heparin for deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is found to have a nosebleed. Which finding requires immediate action?

• A. The client's activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is 70 seconds.
• B. The client has developed a nosebleed.
• C. The client's blood pressure is 150/90 mm Hg.
• D. The client reports feeling lightheaded.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A nosebleed (B) in a client receiving heparin is a sign of heparin toxicity and requires immediate action. It indicates that the client is at risk of excessive bleeding. While a prolonged aPTT of 70 seconds (A) is worth monitoring, active bleeding takes precedence. Elevated blood pressure (C) and lightheadedness (D) are potential side effects of heparin but are not as urgently concerning as active bleeding.

Similar Questions