Nursing Elites

1. The nurse notes that a client who has undergone a thoracotomy has an increase in a large amount of dark red blood in the chest tube collection chamber. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Document the findings for this procedure as expected
• B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately
• C. Check the tube for kinks or dependent loops
• D. Increase the suction to the chest drainage system

Correct answer: B

Rationale: An increase in a large amount of dark red blood in the chest tube collection chamber may indicate active bleeding. The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately to address the situation promptly and prevent further complications. Documenting the findings without taking immediate action could delay necessary interventions. Checking the tube for kinks or dependent loops is a good practice but not the priority when dealing with a potentially life-threatening situation like active bleeding. Increasing the suction without healthcare provider's orders can lead to complications and is not appropriate in this scenario.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and is unresponsive. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer 50% dextrose IV push
• B. Administer IV fluids as prescribed
• C. Check the client's blood glucose level
• D. Prepare the client for immediate dialysis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering IV fluids as prescribed should be the first intervention for a client with diabetes mellitus admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dl and unresponsive. This intervention is crucial in managing hyperglycemia by helping to correct dehydration and electrolyte imbalances. Administering 50% dextrose IV push (Choice A) would worsen hyperglycemia in this scenario. Checking the client's blood glucose level (Choice C) is important but not the priority when dealing with an unresponsive client with severe hyperglycemia. Immediate dialysis preparation (Choice D) is not indicated as the first intervention for hyperglycemia.

3. The home health nurse is preparing to make daily visits to a group of clients. Which client should the nurse visit first?

• A. A client with congestive heart failure who reports a 3-pound weight gain in the last two days
• B. A client with a healing surgical wound
• C. A client requiring wound dressing change
• D. A client with stable vital signs needing medication administration

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. A 3-pound weight gain in two days indicates fluid retention and worsening heart failure, which requires immediate assessment. This could be a sign of decompensation in the client's condition, necessitating prompt evaluation and intervention. Choices B, C, and D do not present an immediate threat to the client's health and can be addressed after assessing the client with congestive heart failure.

4. A client with cirrhosis is admitted with jaundice and ascites. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
• B. Administer lactulose as prescribed.
• C. Monitor the client's weight daily.
• D. Assess the client's neurological status.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Administering lactulose is the first priority in managing a client with cirrhosis to reduce ammonia levels and prevent worsening hepatic encephalopathy. Lactulose helps in decreasing the absorption of ammonia in the intestines and promotes its excretion through the stool. This intervention is crucial in preventing the development or progression of hepatic encephalopathy. Administering a diuretic (Choice A) may be necessary to manage ascites, but it is not the priority over lactulose in this scenario. Monitoring the client's weight (Choice C) is important to assess fluid retention but is not the first intervention required. Assessing the client's neurological status (Choice D) is essential in cirrhosis, but administering lactulose takes precedence to prevent hepatic encephalopathy.

5. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) assigned to obtain client vital signs reports to the charge nurse that a client has a weak pulse with a rate of 44 beats/minute. What action should the charge nurse implement?

• A. Instruct the UAP to count the client's apical pulse rate for sixty seconds.
• B. Determine if the UAP also measured the client's capillary refill time.
• C. Assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical-radial pulse deficit is present.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the abnormal pulse rate and pulse volume.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the charge nurse to implement in this situation is to assign a practical nurse (LPN) to determine if an apical-radial pulse deficit is present. This helps to confirm the accuracy of the reported weak pulse. In this scenario, it is crucial to involve a licensed nurse to further assess the situation and provide a more comprehensive evaluation. Inaccurate pulse readings can lead to inappropriate interventions or unnecessary alarm. Instructing the UAP to count the apical pulse may not address the accuracy issue. Checking capillary refill time is not directly related to confirming the weak pulse rate. Notifying the healthcare provider immediately may be premature without confirming the accuracy of the pulse reading first.

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