Nursing Elites

1. A male client with rheumatoid arthritis is scheduled for a procedure in the morning. The procedure cannot be completed because of early morning stiffness. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Assign a UAP to assist the client with a warm shower early in the morning.
• B. Provide the client with a warm blanket to reduce stiffness.
• C. Delay the procedure until the client is less stiff.
• D. Encourage the client to perform range-of-motion exercises.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A warm shower can help reduce morning stiffness, making the procedure more comfortable for the client. This intervention promotes comfort and mobility, addressing the immediate issue of stiffness. Providing a warm blanket (choice B) may offer some comfort but will not address the stiffness as effectively as a warm shower. Delaying the procedure (choice C) may inconvenience the client and not address the underlying stiffness issue. Encouraging range-of-motion exercises (choice D) is important for long-term management but may not provide immediate relief from the stiffness that is hindering the procedure.

2. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is scheduled for a CT scan with contrast. Which laboratory value should the nurse review before the procedure?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
• C. Serum creatinine
• D. Serum glucose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Before a CT scan with contrast, the nurse should review the serum creatinine level. This is crucial in assessing kidney function because contrast agents can potentially worsen renal function, leading to contrast-induced nephropathy. Monitoring serum creatinine helps in identifying patients at risk and taking necessary precautions. Serum potassium (Choice A) is important in conditions like hyperkalemia but is not the priority before a contrast CT scan. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) (Choice B) is another renal function test but is not as specific as serum creatinine for assessing kidney function. Serum glucose (Choice D) is important in monitoring blood sugar levels, especially in diabetic patients, but it is not directly related to the risk of contrast-induced nephropathy in this scenario.

3. A female client who is admitted to the mental health unit for opiate dependency is receiving clonidine 0.1 mg PO for withdrawal symptoms. The client begins to complain of feeling nervous and tells the nurse that her bones are itching. Which finding should the nurse identify as a contraindication for administering the medication?

• A. Blood pressure 90/76 mm Hg.
• B. Heart rate of 85 bpm.
• C. Respiratory rate of 20 breaths/minute.
• D. Temperature of 99°F (37.2°C).

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clonidine can lower blood pressure, so a BP of 90/76 mm Hg may indicate that it is unsafe to administer another dose. In this situation, the low blood pressure reading indicates that the client is already experiencing hypotension, which is a common side effect of clonidine. Administering more clonidine could further lower the blood pressure, leading to potential complications. The heart rate, respiratory rate, and temperature are within normal limits and do not serve as contraindications for administering clonidine in this scenario.

4. A client with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl
• B. Serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L
• C. Serum bicarbonate of 18 mEq/L
• D. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bicarbonate level of 18 mEq/L requires immediate intervention in a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). A low serum bicarbonate level indicates metabolic acidosis, which can be life-threatening. This condition needs urgent correction to restore acid-base balance. Serum glucose of 300 mg/dl, serum potassium of 5.5 mEq/L, and serum sodium of 135 mEq/L are abnormal values, but they do not pose an immediate threat to the client's life compared to the metabolic acidosis indicated by the low serum bicarbonate level.

5. A 7-year-old boy is brought to the clinic because of facial edema. He reports that he has been voiding small amounts of dark, cloudy, tea-colored urine. The parents state that their son had a sore throat 2 weeks earlier, but it has resolved. After assessing the child's vital signs and weight, what intervention should the nurse implement next?

• A. Perform an otoscopic examination
• B. Measure the child's abdominal girth
• C. Collect a urine specimen for routine urinalysis
• D. Obtain a blood specimen for serum electrolytes

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Collecting a urine specimen for routine urinalysis is the next appropriate intervention. The symptoms described, including facial edema and tea-colored urine, are indicative of glomerulonephritis, a condition affecting the kidneys. A urine specimen can help assess renal function and the presence of blood and protein in the urine, which are common in glomerulonephritis. Performing an otoscopic examination (Choice A) is not relevant to the presenting symptoms. Measuring the child's abdominal girth (Choice B) is not necessary at this point as it does not directly address the urinary symptoms. Obtaining a blood specimen for serum electrolytes (Choice D) may provide information about electrolyte imbalances but is not the most appropriate initial step in this case.

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