Nursing Elites

1. What is the most important instruction for the nurse to provide a client being discharged following treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome?

• A. Avoid exposure to respiratory infections.
• B. Use relaxation exercises when anxious.
• C. Continue physical therapy at home.
• D. Plan short, frequent rest periods.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most critical instruction for a client being discharged following treatment for Guillain-Barre syndrome is to avoid exposure to respiratory infections. Guillain-Barre syndrome can affect the respiratory system, making infections particularly dangerous. While relaxation exercises, physical therapy, and rest periods are beneficial for overall well-being and recovery, preventing respiratory infections takes precedence due to the potential life-threatening complications associated with respiratory compromise in Guillain-Barre syndrome.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic heart failure who is receiving furosemide (Lasix). Which laboratory value requires immediate intervention?

• A. Serum potassium of 3.0 mEq/L
• B. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L
• C. Serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL
• D. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is most concerning in a client receiving furosemide as it indicates hypokalemia, which requires immediate intervention. Hypokalemia can lead to serious cardiac arrhythmias, which can be life-threatening. Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L and serum creatinine of 1.8 mg/dL are within normal ranges and do not require immediate intervention in this case. Blood glucose of 200 mg/dL is elevated but does not pose an immediate threat to the client's life in the context of heart failure and furosemide therapy.

3. The nurse reviews the laboratory findings of a client with an open fracture of the tibia. The white blood cell (WBC) count and erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR) are elevated. Before reporting this information to the healthcare provider, what assessment should the nurse obtain?

• A. Appearance of wound
• B. Pain level
• C. Presence of fever
• D. Mobility status

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Appearance of wound. Elevated WBC and ESR levels suggest a possible infection in the client with an open fracture. Assessing the wound's appearance is crucial to evaluate for signs of infection, such as redness, warmth, swelling, or drainage. By assessing the wound first, the nurse can provide important information to the healthcare provider regarding the potential infection, which may require immediate intervention. Choices B, C, and D are important assessments in caring for a client with an open fracture; however, in this scenario, the priority is to assess the wound for signs of infection due to the elevated WBC and ESR levels.

4. An adolescent's mother calls the clinic because the teen is having recurrent vomiting and has become combative in the last 2 days. The mother states that the teen takes vitamins, calcium, magnesium, and aspirin. Which nursing intervention has the highest priority?

• A. Advise the mother to withhold all medications by mouth.
• B. Instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room.
• C. Recommend that the teen withhold food and fluids for 2 hours.
• D. Suggest that the adolescent breathe slowly and deeply.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the mother to take the teen to the emergency room. The symptoms described, including recurrent vomiting and becoming combative after taking vitamins, calcium, magnesium, and aspirin, indicate a potential overdose or a serious condition. Therefore, immediate medical evaluation in the emergency room is crucial. Advising to withhold all medications by mouth (Choice A) may delay necessary treatment. Recommending to withhold food and fluids (Choice C) is not appropriate in this urgent situation. Suggesting deep breathing (Choice D) does not address the seriousness of the symptoms and the need for immediate medical attention.

5. Following a gunshot wound to the abdomen, a young adult male had an emergency bowel resection and received multiple blood products. His current blood pressure is 78/52 mm Hg, and he is being mechanically ventilated. His oxygen saturation is 87%. Laboratory values indicate hemoglobin of 7 g/dL, platelets of 20,000/mm³, and white blood cells of 2,000/mm³. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Transfuse packed red blood cells.
• B. Obtain blood and sputum cultures.
• C. Infuse 1000 ml of normal saline.
• D. Titrate oxygen to keep O2 saturation above 90%.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to transfuse packed red blood cells first. The client's low hemoglobin level of 7 g/dL indicates severe anemia, which requires immediate transfusion to increase oxygen-carrying capacity. While obtaining blood and sputum cultures (Choice B) is important to identify potential infections, addressing the critical issue of anemia takes precedence. Infusing normal saline (Choice C) may help with volume status but does not address the primary concern of low hemoglobin. Titration of oxygen (Choice D) is crucial, but transfusion to improve oxygen-carrying capacity should be the priority in this scenario.

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