HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Quizlet
1. In determining the client position for insertion of an indwelling urinary catheter, it is most important for the nurse to recognize which client condition?
- A. High urinary pH
- B. Abdominal ascites
- C. Orthopnea
- D. Fever
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Orthopnea. If the client is orthopneic, the nurse needs to adapt the insertion position that does not place the client in a supine position. This means the head of the bed should be elevated as much as possible to facilitate catheter insertion without compromising the client's breathing. High urinary pH (choice A) is not directly relevant to the insertion position of a urinary catheter. Abdominal ascites (choice B) may impact the procedure due to abdominal distension but is not as crucial as orthopnea. Fever (choice D) does not specifically affect the client's position for urinary catheter insertion.
2. Which serum laboratory value should the nurse monitor carefully for a client who has had an NG tube for suctioning for the past week?
- A. White blood cell count
- B. Albumin
- C. Calcium
- D. Sodium
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The nurse should carefully monitor serum sodium levels for a client with an NG tube on suction for an extended period due to potential fluid loss and the risk of developing hyponatremia, an electrolyte imbalance. Hyponatremia can occur as a result of continual suctioning leading to fluid loss, making it crucial to monitor sodium levels to prevent complications associated with low sodium levels. Monitoring white blood cell count, albumin, or calcium is not directly related to the impact of NG tube suction on fluid and electrolyte balance, so these values are not the priority in this scenario.
3. Capillary glucose monitoring is being performed every 4 hours for a female client diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis. Insulin is administered using a scale of regular insulin according to glucose results. At 2 p.m., the client has a capillary glucose level of 250 mg/dl for which she receives 8 U of regular insulin. Nurse Vince should expect the dose's:
- A. Onset to be at 2 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
- B. Onset to be at 2:15 p.m. and its peak to be at 3 p.m.
- C. Onset to be at 2:30 p.m. and its peak to be at 4 p.m.
- D. Onset to be at 4 p.m. and its peak to be at 6 p.m.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Regular insulin typically has an onset of action within 30 minutes and peaks 2-4 hours after administration. Given that the insulin was administered at 2 p.m., the onset of action can be expected around 2:30 p.m., and the peak effect would occur between 4-6 p.m. Choice A is incorrect as the onset and peak are too close together for regular insulin. Choice B is incorrect because the onset time is too soon after administration. Choice D is incorrect as the onset time is too delayed for regular insulin.
4. During nasotracheal suctioning, which of the following observations should be cause for concern to the nurse? Select all that apply.
- A. The client becomes cyanotic.
- B. Secretions are bloody.
- C. The client gags during the procedure.
- D. Clear to opaque secretions are removed.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: During nasotracheal suctioning, the client gagging during the procedure is a cause for concern as it can indicate discomfort or potential airway obstruction. Cyanosis, bloody secretions, or the removal of clear to opaque secretions are expected observations that the nurse should monitor for, but gagging indicates a need for immediate intervention to ensure the safety and comfort of the client. Cyanosis and bloody secretions can signify oxygenation issues and potential complications, while the removal of secretions is the goal of the suctioning procedure.
5. A client is admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumonia. The client is prescribed intravenous antibiotics and oxygen therapy. Which assessment finding indicates that the client's condition is improving?
- A. Increased white blood cell count
- B. Crackles heard on lung auscultation
- C. Productive cough with green sputum
- D. Decreased respiratory rate from 24 to 18 breaths per minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A decrease in respiratory rate indicates that the client's breathing is becoming more stable, which suggests an improvement in their condition. Respiratory rate is a critical indicator of respiratory status and oxygenation. Increased white blood cell count (choice A) suggests ongoing infection, crackles on lung auscultation (choice B) indicate fluid in the lungs, and productive cough with green sputum (choice C) may indicate persistent infection or airway inflammation, which do not necessarily reflect improvement in pneumonia.