Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200/110 mmHg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer an antihypertensive medication as prescribed.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Administer oxygen therapy as prescribed.
• D. Obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample. In a client with severe hypertension, it is essential to assess for metabolic or respiratory acidosis which can be done through an ABG sample. Administering antihypertensive medication without assessing the acid-base status of the client can lead to potential complications. Monitoring urine output and administering oxygen therapy are important interventions but are not the priority in this situation where the focus should be on assessing acidosis.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which laboratory value should be reported to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dl
• B. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dl
• C. Potassium of 6.5 mEq/L
• D. Blood glucose of 150 mg/dl

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. A potassium level of 6.5 mEq/L is dangerously high, a condition known as hyperkalemia, and requires immediate intervention to prevent cardiac complications. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making it crucial to notify the healthcare provider promptly. Choices A, B, and D do not indicate immediate life-threatening conditions. Elevated serum creatinine levels are expected in CKD, a hemoglobin level of 10 g/dl is within a reasonable range, and a blood glucose level of 150 mg/dl is not acutely concerning in this context.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) who is receiving erythropoietin therapy. Which clinical finding is most concerning?

• A. Increased fatigue
• B. Elevated blood pressure
• C. Elevated hemoglobin
• D. Low urine output

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) receiving erythropoietin therapy, elevated blood pressure is the most concerning finding. Elevated blood pressure can indicate worsening hypertension, which requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage to the kidneys and other organs. Increased fatigue (choice A) is a common symptom in CKD but may not be as acutely concerning as elevated blood pressure. Elevated hemoglobin (choice C) can be an expected outcome of erythropoietin therapy and is not necessarily concerning. Low urine output (choice D) is important to monitor in CKD but may not be as immediately concerning as elevated blood pressure in this context.

4. A female client reports that her hair is becoming coarse and breaking off, the outer part of her eyebrows has disappeared, and her eyes are all puffy. Which follow-up question is best for the nurse to ask?

• A. Is there a history of female baldness in your family?
• B. Are you under any unusual stress at home or work?
• C. Do you work with hazardous chemicals?
• D. Have you noticed any changes in your fingernails?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because the manifestations reported by the client, such as coarse hair, missing eyebrows, and puffy eyes, are indicative of hypothyroidism. Changes in the fingernails, such as brittle or pitted nails, can also be associated with hypothyroidism. Option A is incorrect as female baldness is not directly related to the reported symptoms. Option B is less relevant as stress typically does not cause these specific symptoms. Option C is also less relevant as exposure to hazardous chemicals would present with different symptoms.

5. A client with type 2 diabetes is admitted with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (HHS). Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer intravenous fluids.
• B. Monitor the client's urine output.
• C. Obtain a blood glucose level.
• D. Administer 50% dextrose IV push.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer 50% dextrose IV push first. In hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome, the main goal is to rapidly reduce blood glucose levels to prevent further complications. Administering dextrose intravenously can help reverse the effects of high blood glucose levels quickly. Administering intravenous fluids, monitoring urine output, and obtaining a blood glucose level are important interventions but are not the first priority in treating HHS. Administering 50% dextrose IV push takes precedence as it directly addresses the elevated blood glucose levels.

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