a client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200110 mmhg which intervention should the nurse implement first
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI 799 RN Exit Exam

1. A client with a history of hypertension is admitted with a blood pressure of 200/110 mmHg. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to obtain an arterial blood gas (ABG) sample. In a client with severe hypertension, it is essential to assess for metabolic or respiratory acidosis which can be done through an ABG sample. Administering antihypertensive medication without assessing the acid-base status of the client can lead to potential complications. Monitoring urine output and administering oxygen therapy are important interventions but are not the priority in this situation where the focus should be on assessing acidosis.

2. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is receiving supplemental oxygen. Which finding requires immediate intervention?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. The use of accessory muscles indicates increased work of breathing and may signal respiratory failure in a client with COPD, requiring immediate intervention. Oxygen saturation of 90% is within an acceptable range for COPD patients on supplemental oxygen. A respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute is slightly elevated but not an immediate concern. A blood pressure of 110/70 mmHg is within the normal range and does not require immediate intervention in this scenario.

3. During a home visit, the nurse observed an elderly client with diabetes slip and fall. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take after an elderly client with diabetes slips and falls is to check the client for lacerations or fractures. This is crucial to assess for any immediate physical injuries that may need immediate attention. Giving orange juice or assessing the blood sugar level may be important later but checking for injuries takes precedence to ensure the client's safety and well-being. Calling 911 should be considered if there are severe injuries or if the client is in distress, but checking for lacerations or fractures is the priority at the moment.

4. A male client is admitted with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting for the last several hours despite the use of antiemetics. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first intervention for a male client with a bowel obstruction and intractable vomiting is to infuse 0.9% sodium chloride 500 ml bolus. This intervention is crucial to address the risk of hypovolemia due to excessive vomiting. Administering intravenous fluids will help prevent dehydration, maintain blood pressure, and stabilize the client's condition. Choice B, administering an antiemetic intravenously, may not be effective as the client has already been unresponsive to antiemetics orally. Choice C, inserting a nasogastric tube, may be necessary but is not the priority in this situation. Choice D, preparing the client for surgery, should only be considered after stabilizing the client's fluid and electrolyte balance.

5. The healthcare provider prescribes ceftazidime (Fortaz) 35 mg every 8 hours IM for an infant. The 500 mg vial is labeled with the instruction to add 5.3 ml diluent to provide a concentration of 100 mg/ml. How many ml should the nurse administer for each dose?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the volume to be administered for 35 mg of ceftazidime, divide the prescribed dose by the concentration: 35 mg / 100 mg/ml = 0.35 ml. Rounding off, the nurse should administer 0.4 ml for each dose. Choice A is incorrect as it doesn't consider rounding off. Choice C is incorrect because it's not the correct calculation. Choice D is incorrect as it doesn't reflect the accurate volume needed.

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