Nursing Elites

1. An adult female client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) asks the nurse if she can continue taking her over-the-counter medications. Which medication poses the greatest threat to this client?

• A. Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox).
• B. Birth control pills.
• C. Cough syrup containing codeine.
• D. Cold medication containing alcohol.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A, Magnesium hydroxide (Maalox). In clients with chronic kidney disease (CKD), magnesium can accumulate to toxic levels as the kidneys are unable to excrete it efficiently. This can lead to hypermagnesemia, causing serious and potentially life-threatening complications. Birth control pills (choice B) are metabolized mainly by the liver and do not pose a significant threat to clients with CKD. Cough syrup containing codeine (choice C) should be used cautiously in CKD due to the risk of respiratory depression but does not pose as great a threat as magnesium accumulation. Cold medication containing alcohol (choice D) should be avoided in CKD but does not present the same level of danger as magnesium toxicity.

2. The client with end-stage renal disease (ESRD) is scheduled for hemodialysis. Which laboratory value is most concerning?

• A. Serum potassium of 6.0 mEq/L
• B. Serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL
• C. Serum calcium of 8.0 mg/dL
• D. Hemoglobin of 10 g/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A serum potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L is most concerning in a client with ESRD scheduled for hemodialysis as it indicates hyperkalemia, which can lead to serious cardiac complications such as arrhythmias and cardiac arrest. Immediate intervention is required to lower potassium levels. Choice B, serum creatinine of 2.5 mg/dL, is elevated but expected in ESRD due to impaired kidney function. Choice C, serum calcium of 8.0 mg/dL, is within the normal range and not typically a priority in this situation. Choice D, hemoglobin of 10 g/dL, is slightly low but not an immediate concern for a client scheduled for hemodialysis unless significantly lower and causing severe symptoms.

3. Sublingual nitroglycerin is administered to a male client with unstable angina who complains of crushing chest pain. Five minutes later the client becomes nauseated, and his blood pressure drops to 60/40. Which intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Administer a second dose of nitroglycerin.
• B. Infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus.
• C. Begin external chest compressions.
• D. Give a PRN antiemetic medication.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client's symptoms of nausea and a significant drop in blood pressure suggest a potential right ventricular infarction. The appropriate intervention for this situation is to infuse a rapid IV normal saline bolus. This fluid resuscitation helps improve cardiac output by increasing preload, which can be beneficial in right ventricular infarction. Administering a second dose of nitroglycerin may further lower blood pressure. External chest compressions are not indicated in this case as the client has a pulse. Providing an antiemetic medication does not address the underlying issue of hypotension and potential right ventricular involvement.

4. A client with a history of myocardial infarction is admitted with chest pain. Which diagnostic test should the nurse anticipate preparing the client for first?

• A. Electrocardiogram (ECG)
• B. Chest X-ray
• C. Arterial blood gases (ABGs)
• D. Echocardiogram

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Electrocardiogram (ECG). An electrocardiogram should be performed first to assess for cardiac ischemia in a client with a history of myocardial infarction and chest pain. This test provides immediate information about the heart's electrical activity. Choice B, Chest X-ray, is used to visualize the structures of the chest, including the heart and lungs, but it does not directly assess for cardiac ischemia. Choice C, Arterial blood gases (ABGs), measures the oxygen and carbon dioxide levels in the blood and assesses acid-base balance, which is not the primary concern in this scenario. Choice D, Echocardiogram, is an ultrasound of the heart that provides information about the heart's structure and function, but it is not the initial diagnostic test for assessing cardiac ischemia in this situation.

5. A 3-year-old boy with a congenital heart defect is brought to the clinic by his mother. During the assessment, the mother asks the nurse why her child is at the 5th percentile for growth. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Does your child seem mentally slower than his peers also?
• B. His smaller size is probably due to the heart disease
• C. Haven't you been feeding him according to recommended daily allowances for children?
• D. You should not worry about the growth tables. They are only averages for children

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Heart disease can affect growth, leading to smaller size in children.

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