Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is performing an admission assessment of an older client who has difficulty swallowing and has a history of aspiration pneumonia. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain a speech therapy consult
• B. Elevate the head of the bed
• C. Check the client's lung sounds
• D. Implement aspiration precautions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps prevent aspiration in clients with swallowing difficulties by reducing the risk of food or fluids entering the airway. While obtaining a speech therapy consult (Choice A) is important, the immediate priority is to ensure the client's safety by positioning them properly. Checking the client's lung sounds (Choice C) and implementing aspiration precautions (Choice D) are also essential steps but should follow the immediate intervention of elevating the head of the bed to prevent aspiration.

2. A client who is gravida 1, para 0, is admitted to the birthing suite in early labor and requests pain relief. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Encourage the client to use distraction techniques
• B. Offer to teach the client relaxation techniques
• C. Determine the client’s pain level and location
• D. Administer an opioid analgesic as prescribed

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the correct action for the nurse to implement is to administer an opioid analgesic as prescribed. Since the client is in early labor and requesting pain relief, opioids are commonly used to provide effective pain relief during labor. Encouraging distraction or teaching relaxation techniques may not be sufficient for pain management during labor, especially in the early stages when the pain intensity can increase rapidly. Determining the pain level and location is important but administering the prescribed opioid is the most appropriate action to address the client's request for pain relief.

3. A client is receiving a low dose of dopamine (Intropin) IV for the treatment of hypotension. Which indicator reflects that the medication is having the desired effect?

• A. Increased heart rate
• B. Increased urinary output
• C. Increased blood pressure
• D. Increased respiratory rate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increased blood pressure is the desired effect of administering dopamine (Intropin) to treat hypotension. Dopamine acts by stimulating adrenergic receptors, leading to vasoconstriction and increased cardiac output. This results in an elevation of blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly reflect the therapeutic action of dopamine in treating hypotension. Increased heart rate may indicate the body compensating for low blood pressure, increased urinary output is more related to kidney function, and increased respiratory rate is often seen in response to respiratory issues, not the action of dopamine on hypotension.

4. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, 'I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home'. What response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Heparin prevents future clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely
• B. You seem to be concerned about the length of time it takes for Heparin to dissolve this clot
• C. Let me contact your surgeon and find out if Heparin IV therapy can be administered to you at home
• D. Why are you so anxious to leave the hospital when you know you are not well enough yet?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Choice A is the best response because it educates the client about the role of heparin in preventing future clot formation rather than dissolving the existing clot. This helps the client understand the medication's function and the importance of closely monitoring for signs of bleeding, a common side effect of heparin therapy. Choice B acknowledges the client's concern but does not provide accurate information about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is premature as it suggests transitioning to home therapy without addressing the client's concerns or explaining heparin's purpose. Choice D does not address the client's statement and instead questions their desire to leave the hospital.

5. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?

• A. It dissolves blood clots
• B. It prevents the blood from clotting
• C. It thins the blood
• D. It decreases the risk of infection

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.

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