the nurse is performing an admission assessment of an older client who has difficulty swallowing and has a history of aspiration pneumonia which actio
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1

1. The nurse is performing an admission assessment of an older client who has difficulty swallowing and has a history of aspiration pneumonia. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps prevent aspiration in clients with swallowing difficulties by reducing the risk of food or fluids entering the airway. While obtaining a speech therapy consult (Choice A) is important, the immediate priority is to ensure the client's safety by positioning them properly. Checking the client's lung sounds (Choice C) and implementing aspiration precautions (Choice D) are also essential steps but should follow the immediate intervention of elevating the head of the bed to prevent aspiration.

2. The nurse-manager of a perinatal unit is notified that one client from the medical-surgical unit needs to be transferred to make room for new admissions. Which client should the nurse recommend for transfer to the antepartal unit?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client with lupus erythematosus can be safely transferred to the antepartal unit as this condition does not pose a significant risk to other patients or staff. Choices A, C, and D should not be recommended for transfer to the antepartal unit due to the potential risks they may pose to pregnant women and their unborn babies. Chronic hepatitis B, rubella, and herpes lesions of the vulva can be contagious and harmful in the perinatal setting.

3. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus reports feeling shaky and has a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client is experiencing hypoglycemia with a blood glucose level of 60 mg/dl. The appropriate action for the nurse to take is to administer 15 grams of carbohydrate. Carbohydrate intake helps to rapidly raise blood sugar levels in cases of hypoglycemia. Administering a glucagon injection (Choice B) is not the initial treatment for mild hypoglycemia; it is typically used for severe hypoglycemia when the client is unable to consume oral carbohydrates. Providing a snack with protein (Choice C) is not the first-line intervention for hypoglycemia; immediate carbohydrate intake is necessary to raise blood sugar levels quickly. Encouraging the client to rest (Choice D) may be appropriate after administering the carbohydrate, but the priority is to address the low blood glucose levels by administering carbohydrates first.

5. In the newborn nursery, the nurse admits a baby from labor and delivery who is suspected of having a congenital heart disease. Which finding helps to confirm this diagnosis?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Centralized cyanosis and tachycardia are classic signs of congenital heart disease. Choice A is incorrect because cyanosis in the hands and feet is not specific to congenital heart disease. Choice B is incorrect as the vital signs provided are not specific indicators of congenital heart disease. Choice D is unrelated to the typical signs of congenital heart disease.

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