the nurse is performing an admission assessment of an older client who has difficulty swallowing and has a history of aspiration pneumonia which actio
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1

1. The nurse is performing an admission assessment of an older client who has difficulty swallowing and has a history of aspiration pneumonia. Which action should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps prevent aspiration in clients with swallowing difficulties by reducing the risk of food or fluids entering the airway. While obtaining a speech therapy consult (Choice A) is important, the immediate priority is to ensure the client's safety by positioning them properly. Checking the client's lung sounds (Choice C) and implementing aspiration precautions (Choice D) are also essential steps but should follow the immediate intervention of elevating the head of the bed to prevent aspiration.

2. The mother of a 6-year-old anemic boy is taught by the nurse to give iron supplements. Which statement indicates that the mother understands the proper administration of iron?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because iron supplements are best absorbed on an empty stomach, which maximizes their effectiveness. Giving iron tablets with milk or calcium-rich foods, as mentioned in choice B, should be avoided as they can decrease iron absorption. Choice C is incorrect because iron preparations should not be taken with antibiotics due to potential interactions. Choice D is also incorrect as iron tablets do not cause an increased risk of sunburn, so sunscreen is not necessary specifically due to iron supplementation.

3. The husband and adult children of a woman who abuses alcohol ask the nurse what approach to use when her drinking behavior disrupts family plans. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best approach for the nurse to suggest is to make the woman responsible for the consequences of her drinking behaviors. By holding her accountable, she is more likely to recognize the impact of her actions and potentially initiate change. Destroying hidden alcohol supplies (Choice A) might lead to conflict and further secretive behavior. Simply communicating the disruptions caused by her drinking (Choice B) may not effectively address the issue. Including her in family activities regardless of her drinking status (Choice D) could enable the behavior and not address the underlying problem.

4. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

5. A male client with diabetes mellitus takes Novolin 70/30 insulin before meals and azithromycin (Zithromax) PO daily, using medication he brought from home. When the nurse delivers his breakfast tray, the client tells the nurse that he took his insulin but forgot to take his daily dose of the Zithromax an hour before breakfast as instructed. What action should the nurse implement?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To ensure the effectiveness of the antibiotic and manage blood glucose levels, the client should take the Zithromax two hours after eating. Option A is incorrect because obtaining a new breakfast tray is not necessary to administer the missed dose. Option C is incorrect as skipping a dose can lead to decreased effectiveness of the antibiotic. Option D is incorrect because providing an antacid is not indicated in this situation.

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