Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is performing an admission assessment of an older client who has difficulty swallowing and has a history of aspiration pneumonia. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Obtain a speech therapy consult
• B. Elevate the head of the bed
• C. Check the client's lung sounds
• D. Implement aspiration precautions

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement first is to elevate the head of the bed. Elevating the head of the bed helps prevent aspiration in clients with swallowing difficulties by reducing the risk of food or fluids entering the airway. While obtaining a speech therapy consult (Choice A) is important, the immediate priority is to ensure the client's safety by positioning them properly. Checking the client's lung sounds (Choice C) and implementing aspiration precautions (Choice D) are also essential steps but should follow the immediate intervention of elevating the head of the bed to prevent aspiration.

2. One hour after delivery, the nurse is unable to palpate the uterine fundus of a client and notes a large amount of lochia on the perineal pad. Which intervention should the nurse implement first?

• A. Empty the bladder using an indwelling urinary catheter
• B. Increase the rate of the IV containing oxytocin (Pitocin)
• C. Assess for shock by determining the blood pressure
• D. Perform gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Gentle massage at the level of the umbilicus is the initial intervention to help contract the uterus and reduce bleeding, which is crucial in managing postpartum hemorrhage. Emptying the bladder can help with fundal displacement, but massage should be done first to stimulate uterine contractions. Increasing the IV oxytocin rate is a possible intervention but not the initial priority. Assessing for shock is important, but addressing the uterine atony through massage takes precedence to prevent further hemorrhage.

3. The nurse-manager of a perinatal unit is notified that one client from the medical-surgical unit needs to be transferred to make room for new admissions. Which client should the nurse recommend for transfer to the antepartal unit?

• A. A 45-year-old with chronic hepatitis B.
• B. A 35-year-old with lupus erythematosus
• C. A 19-year-old diagnosed with rubella
• D. A 25-year-old with herpes lesions of the vulva

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because a client with lupus erythematosus can be safely transferred to the antepartal unit as this condition does not pose a significant risk to other patients or staff. Choices A, C, and D should not be recommended for transfer to the antepartal unit due to the potential risks they may pose to pregnant women and their unborn babies. Chronic hepatitis B, rubella, and herpes lesions of the vulva can be contagious and harmful in the perinatal setting.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days post-op following an abdominal surgery. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound
• B. Notify the healthcare provider
• C. Administer pain medication
• D. Cover the wound with an abdominal binder

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this situation, the priority action for the nurse is to apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound. This helps prevent infection and keeps the wound moist, which is crucial in promoting healing and preventing further complications. Option B, notifying the healthcare provider, is important but should come after addressing the wound. Administering pain medication (Option C) may be necessary but is not the first action to take in this emergency situation. Covering the wound with an abdominal binder (Option D) is not appropriate and may cause further harm by applying pressure to the protruding bowel.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 2 liters per minute by nasal cannula. The client develops respiratory distress and the nurse increases the oxygen to 4 liters per minute. Shortly afterward, the client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Reposition the nasal cannula
• B. Lower the oxygen rate
• C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
• D. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the client with COPD receiving increased oxygen is experiencing oxygen toxicity, leading to lethargy and confusion. Lowering the oxygen rate is the priority action to prevent further harm. Repositioning the nasal cannula, encouraging coughing and deep breathing, and monitoring oxygen saturation are all important interventions, but the immediate concern is to address the oxygen toxicity by lowering the oxygen rate.

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