HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1
1. When caring for a laboring client whose contractions are occurring every 2 to 3 min, the nurse should document that the pump is infusing how many ml/hr?
- A. 42
- B. 50
- C. 60
- D. 70
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, we first need to determine the frequency of contractions per hour. If contractions are occurring every 2 to 3 minutes, this corresponds to 20 to 30 contractions in an hour (60 minutes). The average is 25 contractions in an hour. The pump should be infusing 1 ml for each contraction, so the infusion rate should be 25 ml/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 42 ml/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculation based on the given data.
2. A client is receiving a low dose of dopamine (Intropin) IV for the treatment of hypotension. Which indicator reflects that the medication is having the desired effect?
- A. Increased heart rate
- B. Increased urinary output
- C. Increased blood pressure
- D. Increased respiratory rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Increased blood pressure is the desired effect of administering dopamine (Intropin) to treat hypotension. Dopamine acts by stimulating adrenergic receptors, leading to vasoconstriction and increased cardiac output. This results in an elevation of blood pressure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they do not directly reflect the therapeutic action of dopamine in treating hypotension. Increased heart rate may indicate the body compensating for low blood pressure, increased urinary output is more related to kidney function, and increased respiratory rate is often seen in response to respiratory issues, not the action of dopamine on hypotension.
3. What assessment technique should the nurse use to monitor a client for a common untoward effect of phenytoin (Dilantin)?
- A. Bladder palpation
- B. Inspection of the mouth
- C. Blood glucose monitoring
- D. Auscultation of breath sounds
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Inspection of the mouth. This assessment technique is crucial for monitoring gingival hyperplasia, a common side effect of phenytoin. Bladder palpation (choice A) is not relevant to monitoring for phenytoin's side effects. Blood glucose monitoring (choice C) is important for clients with diabetes but is not specifically related to phenytoin. Auscultation of breath sounds (choice D) is more relevant for assessing respiratory conditions, not side effects of phenytoin.
4. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) asks the nurse how the medication works. What explanation should the nurse provide?
- A. It dissolves blood clots
- B. It prevents the blood from clotting
- C. It thins the blood
- D. It decreases the risk of infection
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'It prevents the blood from clotting.' Warfarin works by inhibiting the synthesis of vitamin K-dependent clotting factors in the liver, thereby preventing the formation of blood clots. Choice A is incorrect because warfarin does not dissolve existing blood clots but prevents new ones from forming. Choice C is partially correct but not as specific as choice B in explaining how warfarin works. Choice D is unrelated to the mechanism of action of warfarin and is incorrect.
5. The nurse is caring for a client who is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) via a central venous catheter. Which assessment finding indicates a complication related to the TPN?
- A. Blood glucose level of 180 mg/dl
- B. Serum potassium level of 4.0 mEq/L
- C. Weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours
- D. White blood cell count of 7000/mm3
Correct answer: C
Rationale: A weight gain of 2 pounds in 24 hours is concerning as it indicates fluid retention, a potential complication of TPN leading to fluid overload. Elevated blood glucose levels (Choice A) are expected in TPN, serum potassium levels (Choice B) are within the normal range, and a white blood cell count (Choice D) of 7000/mm3 is also normal. Therefore, the correct answer is C, as it suggests a complication related to TPN.
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