HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1
1. When caring for a laboring client whose contractions are occurring every 2 to 3 min, the nurse should document that the pump is infusing how many ml/hr?
- A. 42
- B. 50
- C. 60
- D. 70
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To calculate the infusion rate, we first need to determine the frequency of contractions per hour. If contractions are occurring every 2 to 3 minutes, this corresponds to 20 to 30 contractions in an hour (60 minutes). The average is 25 contractions in an hour. The pump should be infusing 1 ml for each contraction, so the infusion rate should be 25 ml/hr. Therefore, the correct answer is 42 ml/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the calculation based on the given data.
2. While teaching a group of adults about health promotion activities, a nurse identifies a behavior that poses the most significant risk factor for the development of skin cancer. Which behavior should the nurse address?
- A. Consuming a high-fat diet
- B. Using tanning beds
- C. Smoking cigarettes
- D. Drinking alcohol
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Using tanning beds is the most significant risk factor for developing skin cancer. Ultraviolet (UV) radiation from tanning beds damages the skin and increases the risk of skin cancer. Consuming a high-fat diet, smoking cigarettes, and drinking alcohol are unhealthy behaviors but are not directly linked to the development of skin cancer like UV exposure from tanning beds.
3. A client with an electrical burn on the forearm asks the nurse why there is no feeling of pain from the burn. During the dressing change, the nurse determines that the burn is dry, waxy, and white. What information should the nurse provide this client?
- A. The depth of tissue destruction is minor
- B. Pain is interrupted due to nerve compression
- C. The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves
- D. Second-degree burns are not usually painful
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The full thickness burn has destroyed the nerves.' In full thickness burns, also known as third-degree burns, the nerve endings are destroyed, leading to a lack of pain sensation at the site of the burn. The description of the burn as dry, waxy, and white indicates a full thickness burn. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not explain the absence of pain in full thickness burns. Choice A is incorrect as a full-thickness burn involves significant tissue destruction. Choice B is incorrect because nerve compression would not explain the lack of pain in this context. Choice D is incorrect because second-degree burns, unlike full-thickness burns, are painful due to nerve endings being intact.
4. The nurse is caring for a client who is 2 days post-op following an abdominal surgery. The client reports feeling something 'give way' in the incision site and there is a small amount of bowel protruding from the wound. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound
- B. Notify the healthcare provider
- C. Administer pain medication
- D. Cover the wound with an abdominal binder
Correct answer: A
Rationale: In this situation, the priority action for the nurse is to apply a sterile saline dressing to the wound. This helps prevent infection and keeps the wound moist, which is crucial in promoting healing and preventing further complications. Option B, notifying the healthcare provider, is important but should come after addressing the wound. Administering pain medication (Option C) may be necessary but is not the first action to take in this emergency situation. Covering the wound with an abdominal binder (Option D) is not appropriate and may cause further harm by applying pressure to the protruding bowel.
5. A college student who is diagnosed with a vaginal infection and vulva irritation describes the vaginal discharge as having a 'cottage cheese' appearance. Which prescription should the nurse implement first?
- A. Cleanse the perineum with warm soapy water 3 times per day
- B. Instill the first dose of nystatin (Mycostatin) vaginally per applicator
- C. Perform a glucose measurement using a capillary blood sample
- D. Obtain a blood specimen for sexually transmitted diseases (STDs)
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to instill the first dose of nystatin vaginally per applicator. Nystatin is an antifungal medication used to treat yeast infections, which are characterized by 'cottage cheese' discharge. Cleansing the perineum with warm soapy water may help with hygiene but does not address the underlying infection. Performing a glucose measurement is not relevant to the diagnosis of a vaginal infection. Obtaining a blood specimen for STDs is not the priority in this scenario as the symptoms described are indicative of a yeast infection.
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