HESI RN
HESI RN CAT Exit Exam 1
1. A client with a small bowel obstruction is experiencing frequent vomiting. Which instructions are most important for the nurse to provide to the unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) who is completing morning care for this client?
- A. Maintain a quiet environment
- B. Ensure the linens are clean and dry
- C. Place an air deodorizer in the room
- D. Measure all emesis accurately
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 'Measure all emesis accurately.' When a client with a small bowel obstruction is experiencing frequent vomiting, measuring emesis accurately is crucial for monitoring fluid balance and preventing dehydration. Choice A, 'Maintain a quiet environment,' while important for patient comfort, is not as critical as accurately measuring emesis. Choices B and C, 'Ensure the linens are clean and dry' and 'Place an air deodorizer in the room,' focus on environmental factors that, although helpful, are not as essential as monitoring the client's fluid balance in this situation.
2. The nurse is planning care for a client who is receiving phenytoin (Dilantin) for seizure control. Which intervention is most important to include in this client’s plan of care?
- A. Monitor serum calcium levels
- B. Obtain a baseline electrocardiogram
- C. Implement seizure precautions
- D. Encourage a low-protein diet
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is to implement seizure precautions. Phenytoin is an antiepileptic medication used for seizure control. Seizure precautions are crucial for clients taking this medication to ensure their safety during a seizure episode. Monitoring serum calcium levels (Choice A) is not directly related to phenytoin therapy. Obtaining a baseline electrocardiogram (Choice B) is important for some medications but not the priority for a client on phenytoin. Encouraging a low-protein diet (Choice D) is not specifically indicated for clients on phenytoin and is not the most important intervention.
3. A client diagnosed with a deep vein thrombus (DVT) followed by a diagnosis of pulmonary embolism (PE) is receiving heparin via an infusion pump at a rate of 1400 u/hour. The client tells the nurse, 'I wish this medicine would hurry up and dissolve this clot in my lung so that I can go home'. What response is best for the nurse to provide?
- A. Heparin prevents future clot formation, but your risk of bleeding needs to be monitored closely
- B. You seem to be concerned about the length of time it takes for Heparin to dissolve this clot
- C. Let me contact your surgeon and find out if Heparin IV therapy can be administered to you at home
- D. Why are you so anxious to leave the hospital when you know you are not well enough yet?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Choice A is the best response because it educates the client about the role of heparin in preventing future clot formation rather than dissolving the existing clot. This helps the client understand the medication's function and the importance of closely monitoring for signs of bleeding, a common side effect of heparin therapy. Choice B acknowledges the client's concern but does not provide accurate information about heparin's mechanism of action. Choice C is premature as it suggests transitioning to home therapy without addressing the client's concerns or explaining heparin's purpose. Choice D does not address the client's statement and instead questions their desire to leave the hospital.
4. Which assessment finding should indicate to the nurse that a client with arterial hypertension is experiencing a cardiac complication?
- A. Complaints of an occipital headache
- B. A palpable dorsal pedis pulse bilaterally
- C. Complaints of shortness of breath on exertion
- D. A blood pressure of 160/90
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, complaints of shortness of breath on exertion. This symptom is indicative of heart failure, a common cardiac complication of arterial hypertension. Shortness of breath on exertion is often due to the heart's inability to pump effectively, leading to fluid buildup in the lungs. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because complaints of an occipital headache, a palpable dorsal pedis pulse bilaterally, and a blood pressure of 160/90 do not specifically indicate a cardiac complication in a client with arterial hypertension.
5. A client who had a cerebral vascular accident (CVA) is paralyzed on the left side of the body and has developed a Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip. Which nursing diagnosis describes this client's current health status?
- A. Risk for impaired tissue integrity related to impaired physical mobility
- B. Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure
- C. Ineffective tissue perfusion related to inability to move self in bed
- D. Impaired physical mobility related to the left side paralysis
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct nursing diagnosis for this client is 'Impaired skin integrity related to altered circulation and pressure.' The client's Stage II pressure ulcer on the left hip is a clear indication of impaired skin integrity resulting from altered circulation and pressure due to immobility. Choice A is incorrect because the client already has a pressure ulcer, indicating an actual impairment rather than a risk. Choice C is incorrect as ineffective tissue perfusion is not the primary issue in this case. Choice D is incorrect as it focuses solely on the paralysis and not the actual skin integrity issue.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access