Nursing Elites

1. A client diagnosed with tuberculosis (TB) is placed on drug therapy with rifampin (Rifadin). The client should be instructed to report which effect(s) of the medication to the healthcare provider?

• A. Reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids
• B. Bloody or blood-tinged urine
• C. Blurring of vision
• D. Weight gain of more than 2 pounds in a week

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Rifampin (Rifadin) commonly causes a reddish-orange discoloration of body fluids, including urine, sweat, saliva, and tears. This is a harmless side effect but should be reported to the healthcare provider for monitoring. Choices B, C, and D are not typically associated with rifampin therapy. Bloody or blood-tinged urine may indicate other issues such as urinary tract infection or kidney problems, blurring of vision may suggest eye problems, and significant weight gain could be related to various health conditions unrelated to rifampin.

2. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of pneumonia who has been febrile for 24 hours. Which data is most important for the nurse to obtain in determining the client's fluid status?

• A. Daily intake and output
• B. Skin turgor
• C. Daily weight
• D. Vital signs every 4 hours

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Daily weight is the most important data for the nurse to obtain in determining the client's fluid status in this scenario. During febrile episodes, assessing daily weight is crucial as it can indicate fluid retention or loss. While monitoring intake and output is important for assessing fluid balance, daily weight provides a more comprehensive picture of fluid status over time. Skin turgor is more indicative of hydration status than overall fluid status, and vital signs, although essential, do not directly assess fluid status as effectively as daily weight.

3. The husband and adult children of a woman who abuses alcohol ask the nurse what approach to use when her drinking behavior disrupts family plans. Which response is best for the nurse to provide?

• A. Destroy any hidden supplies of alcohol she has at home so she has to stay sober
• B. When she drinks, communicate how disruptive her behaviors are and the burden they inflict on the family
• C. Make her responsible for the consequences of her drinking behaviors
• D. Include her in family activities whether she is drinking or sober

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The best approach for the nurse to suggest is to make the woman responsible for the consequences of her drinking behaviors. By holding her accountable, she is more likely to recognize the impact of her actions and potentially initiate change. Destroying hidden alcohol supplies (Choice A) might lead to conflict and further secretive behavior. Simply communicating the disruptions caused by her drinking (Choice B) may not effectively address the issue. Including her in family activities regardless of her drinking status (Choice D) could enable the behavior and not address the underlying problem.

4. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is receiving oxygen at 4 liters per minute via nasal cannula. The client becomes lethargic and confused. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Decrease the oxygen flow rate
• B. Increase the oxygen flow rate
• C. Encourage the client to cough and deep breathe
• D. Monitor the client's oxygen saturation level

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to decrease the oxygen flow rate. Clients with COPD are sensitive to high levels of oxygen and can develop oxygen toxicity, leading to symptoms like lethargy and confusion. Decreasing the oxygen flow rate helps prevent this complication. Increasing the oxygen flow rate would worsen the client's condition. Encouraging coughing and deep breathing may not address the immediate issue of oxygen toxicity. While monitoring the client's oxygen saturation level is important, taking action to address the oxygen toxicity by decreasing the flow rate is the priority in this situation.

5. An 18-year-old gravida 1, at 41-weeks gestation, is undergoing an oxytocin (Pitocin) induction and has an epidural catheter in place for pain control. With each of the last three contractions, the nurse notes a late deceleration. The client is repositioned and oxygen provided, but the late decelerations continue to occur with each contraction. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Prepare for immediate cesarean birth
• B. Turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion
• C. Notify the anesthesiologist that the epidural infusion needs to be disconnected
• D. Apply an internal fetal monitoring device and continue to monitor carefully

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the scenario described, the presence of late decelerations during contractions indicates fetal compromise. To address this, the nurse's initial action should be to turn off the oxytocin (Pitocin) infusion. Oxytocin can contribute to uteroplacental insufficiency, leading to late decelerations. This intervention aims to improve fetal oxygenation and prevent further stress on the fetus. Immediate cesarean birth is not the first-line action unless other interventions fail. Notifying the anesthesiologist about disconnecting the epidural infusion is not the priority in this situation. Applying an internal fetal monitoring device is invasive and not the immediate step needed when late decelerations are present.

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