Nursing Elites

1. The client is preparing a morning dose of insulin, which includes 10 units of regular and 22 units of NPH. The nurse is verifying the client's preparation accuracy. What should the syringe read for the correct dose?

• A. 22 units.
• B. 10 units.
• C. 32 units.
• D. 42 units.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 32 units. To determine the correct dose, the nurse needs to add the 10 units of regular insulin to the 22 units of NPH, resulting in a total of 32 units. Therefore, the syringe should read 32 units. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they do not reflect the accurate total dose required for the morning insulin administration.

2. The client with chronic renal failure is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Hemoglobin level.
• B. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) level.
• C. Serum potassium level.
• D. Creatinine level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The serum potassium level should be monitored closely in clients undergoing hemodialysis due to the risk of hyperkalemia. Hemodialysis is used to remove waste products and excess electrolytes like potassium from the blood. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial because an imbalance can lead to serious cardiac complications, making it the priority value to monitor in this scenario. Monitoring hemoglobin levels (choice A) is important for anemia assessment in chronic renal failure but is not directly related to hemodialysis. Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) levels (choice B) and creatinine levels (choice D) are commonly monitored in renal function tests but are not the top priority for monitoring in a client undergoing hemodialysis.

3. The nurse assesses a client who is newly diagnosed with hyperthyroidism and observes that the client's eyeballs are protuberant, causing a wide-eyed appearance and eye discomfort. Based on this finding, which action should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

• A. Assess for signs of increased intracranial pressure
• B. Prepare to administer intravenous levothyroxine
• C. Review the client's serum electrolyte values
• D. Obtain a prescription for artificial tear drops

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In hyperthyroidism, eye discomfort due to protuberant eyeballs (exophthalmos) can be alleviated by using artificial tear drops. These drops help prevent complications associated with dry eyes and promote comfort. Assessing for signs of increased intracranial pressure (Choice A) is not directly related to the client's eye discomfort from hyperthyroidism. Administering intravenous levothyroxine (Choice B) is not the appropriate intervention for managing eye discomfort in hyperthyroidism. Reviewing serum electrolyte values (Choice C) is important in hyperthyroidism but is not directly addressing the client's current eye discomfort and protuberant eyeballs.

4. Alteplase recombinant, or tissue plasminogen activator (t-PA), a thrombolytic enzyme, is administered during the first 6 hours after onset of myocardial infarction (MI) to:

• A. Control chest pain.
• B. Reduce coronary artery vasospasm.
• C. Control the arrhythmias associated with MI.
• D. Revascularize the blocked coronary artery.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Alteplase recombinant, or t-PA, is a thrombolytic enzyme used to dissolve clots and revascularize the blocked coronary artery in patients experiencing a myocardial infarction (MI). Administering t-PA within the first 6 hours of MI onset is crucial to restore blood flow to the affected area and minimize cardiac tissue damage. Therefore, the correct answer is to revascularize the blocked coronary artery. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while controlling chest pain, reducing coronary artery vasospasm, and managing arrhythmias are important goals in managing MI, the primary purpose of administering t-PA within the first 6 hours is to restore blood flow by dissolving clots and revascularizing the blocked coronary artery.

5. Why is the combination drug trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) necessary?

• A. To broaden the antibacterial spectrum.
• B. To decrease bacterial resistance.
• C. To improve the taste.
• D. To minimize toxic effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To decrease bacterial resistance. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is a combination drug used to prevent bacterial resistance to sulfonamides. It works by targeting different steps in the bacterial metabolic pathway, making it harder for bacteria to develop resistance. Choice A is incorrect because the combination does not broaden the antibacterial spectrum; instead, it enhances effectiveness against specific bacteria. Choice C is incorrect as taste improvement is not the primary reason for combining these drugs. Choice D is incorrect because while combination therapy can sometimes help minimize toxic effects, the primary purpose in this case is to address bacterial resistance.

Similar Questions