HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. After three days of persistent epigastric pain, a female client presents to the clinic. She has been taking oral antacids without relief. Her vital signs are heart rate 122 beats/minute, respirations 16 breaths/minute, oxygen saturation 96%, and blood pressure 116/70. The nurse obtains a 12-lead electrocardiogram (ECG). Which assessment finding is most critical?
- A. Irregular pulse rhythm
- B. Bile-colored emesis
- C. ST elevation in three leads
- D. Complaint of radiating jaw pain
Correct answer: C
Rationale: ST elevation in three leads is a critical finding that suggests myocardial infarction, requiring immediate attention. This finding indicates ischemia or injury to the heart muscle. Choices A, B, and D are not as critical in this scenario. Irregular pulse rhythm may be concerning but does not indicate an immediate life-threatening condition like myocardial infarction. Bile-colored emesis and complaint of radiating jaw pain are relevant but not as indicative of a myocardial infarction as ST elevation in three leads.
2. A client with chronic kidney disease starts on hemodialysis. During the first dialysis treatment, the client's blood pressure drops from 150/90 to 80/30. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Stop the dialysis treatment
- B. Administer 5% albumin IV
- C. Monitor blood pressure every 45 minutes
- D. Lower the head of the chair and elevate feet
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take when a client's blood pressure drops significantly during hemodialysis is to lower the head of the chair and elevate the feet. This position adjustment helps improve blood flow to the brain and vital organs, assisting in stabilizing blood pressure. Stopping the dialysis treatment immediately may not be necessary if the blood pressure can be managed effectively by position changes. Administering 5% albumin IV is not the first-line intervention for hypotension during dialysis. Monitoring blood pressure every 45 minutes is important but not the immediate action needed to address the significant drop in blood pressure observed during the dialysis session.
3. To assess the quality of an adult client's pain, what approach should the nurse use?
- A. Observe body language and movement.
- B. Ask the client to describe the pain.
- C. Identify effective pain relief measures.
- D. Provide a numeric pain scale.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to ask the client to describe the pain. This approach allows the nurse to gather subjective information directly from the client, such as the quality, intensity, location, and factors that aggravate or alleviate the pain. Observing body language and movement (Choice A) can provide additional cues but may not fully capture the client's pain experience. Identifying effective pain relief measures (Choice C) and providing a numeric pain scale (Choice D) are important aspects of pain management but do not directly assess the quality of the client's pain.
4. Which food is most important to encourage a client with osteomalacia to include in a daily diet?
- A. Fortified milk and cereals
- B. Citrus fruits and juices
- C. Green leafy vegetables
- D. Red meats and eggs
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Fortified milk and cereals. Osteomalacia is a condition caused by a deficiency in vitamin D. Fortified milk and cereals are rich sources of vitamin D, which is essential for managing osteomalacia. Citrus fruits and juices (choice B) are high in vitamin C, but vitamin D is the primary concern for osteomalacia. Green leafy vegetables (choice C) are good sources of various nutrients but not the main focus for managing osteomalacia. Red meats and eggs (choice D) are good sources of protein and other nutrients but are not as critical as fortified milk and cereals for addressing vitamin D deficiency in osteomalacia.
5. A client with autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease (ADPKD) asks, “Will my children develop this disease?” How should the nurse respond?
- A. No genetic link is known, so your children are not at increased risk.
- B. Your sons will develop this disease because it has a sex-linked gene.
- C. Only if both you and your spouse are carriers of this disease.
- D. Each of your children has a 50% risk of having ADPKD.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Children whose parent has the autosomal dominant form of PKD have a 50% chance of inheriting the gene that causes the disease. ADPKD is transmitted as an autosomal dominant trait and therefore is not gender-specific. Both parents do not need to have this disorder. Choice A is incorrect because ADPKD has a known genetic link and a definitive mode of inheritance. Choice B is incorrect as ADPKD is not sex-linked but autosomal dominant. Choice C is incorrect because ADPKD follows an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern and does not require both parents to be carriers for the child to inherit the disease.
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