Nursing Elites

1. What is the most important nursing intervention for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP)?

• A. Elevate the head of the bed to 30 degrees.
• B. Administer diuretics to reduce fluid volume.
• C. Administer corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
• D. Keep the patient in a supine position.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Elevating the head of the bed to 30 degrees is crucial for a patient with increased intracranial pressure (ICP) because it helps promote venous drainage from the brain, thereby reducing ICP. Keeping the head of the bed elevated helps facilitate cerebral perfusion and can prevent a further increase in ICP. Administering diuretics (Choice B) may be considered in some cases to reduce fluid volume, but it is not the most critical intervention for immediate ICP management. Administering corticosteroids (Choice C) is not typically indicated for managing increased ICP unless there is a specific underlying condition requiring their use. Keeping the patient in a supine position (Choice D) can actually worsen ICP by impeding venous outflow from the brain, making it an incorrect choice for this scenario.

2. Which of the following lab values would be most concerning in a patient receiving heparin therapy?

• A. Elevated hemoglobin levels.
• B. Low platelet count.
• C. High potassium levels.
• D. Low sodium levels.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A low platelet count is most concerning in patients receiving heparin therapy due to the risk of heparin-induced thrombocytopenia. Heparin can sometimes cause a drop in platelet count, leading to a potentially serious condition where blood does not clot as it should. This can result in excessive bleeding or clot formation in blood vessels. Elevated hemoglobin levels, high potassium levels, and low sodium levels are not typically associated with heparin therapy and are less likely to cause immediate concerns or complications in this context.

3. The nurse is preparing to administer amoxicillin (Amoxil) to a patient and learns that the patient previously experienced a rash when taking penicillin. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Administer the amoxicillin and have epinephrine available.
• B. Ask the provider to order an antihistamine.
• C. Contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic.
• D. Request an order for a beta-lactamase-resistant drug.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a patient has a history of rash from penicillin, it indicates a potential allergic reaction to penicillin and other related drugs, such as amoxicillin. It is crucial to avoid administering penicillins to such patients unless there is no alternative. The nurse's best action in this situation is to contact the provider to discuss using a different antibiotic from a different class. This approach helps prevent potential severe allergic reactions. While epinephrine and antihistamines are used to manage allergic reactions, administering amoxicillin despite the known allergy is not advisable and could lead to serious consequences. Requesting a beta-lactamase-resistant drug does not address the issue of potential allergic reactions in this scenario.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who is taking trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX). The nurse learns that the patient takes an angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor. To monitor for drug interactions, the nurse will request an order for which laboratory test(s)?

• A. A complete blood count
• B. BUN and creatinine
• C. Electrolytes
• D. Glucose

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C. Electrolytes.' When trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is taken with an ACE inhibitor, there is an increased risk of hyperkalemia due to the combined effects on potassium levels. Monitoring electrolytes, specifically potassium, is essential to detect and manage this potential drug interaction. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because while they are important tests in general patient care, they are not specifically indicated to monitor for the drug interaction between TMP-SMX and ACE inhibitors.

5. Upon admission, a 77-year-old female client presents with confusion, loss of appetite, nausea, vomiting, and headache, with a pulse rate of 43 beats per minute. Which question should the nurse prioritize asking the client or her family?

• A. Does the client have her own teeth or dentures?
• B. Does the client take aspirin, and if so, what is the dosage?
• C. Does the client take nitroglycerin?
• D. Does the client take digitalis?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. The client's symptoms suggest digitalis toxicity, a potentially life-threatening condition that requires immediate attention. Digitalis toxicity can present with symptoms such as anorexia, nausea, vomiting, headache, and bradycardia (low pulse rate). Given the client's presentation, it is crucial to assess for digitalis use as elderly individuals are more susceptible to this type of intoxication. Choices A, B, and C are important aspects to consider during the assessment, but in this scenario, the priority lies in identifying and addressing the potential digitalis toxicity due to the severity of symptoms and the need for prompt intervention.

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