HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. In a patient with asthma, which of the following is the most important indicator of respiratory function?
- A. Oxygen saturation.
- B. Respiratory rate.
- C. Arterial blood gases.
- D. Peak expiratory flow rate.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The peak expiratory flow rate is the most important indicator of respiratory function in asthma because it measures how quickly air can be exhaled, reflecting the severity of airflow limitation. Oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important in assessing oxygenation, but it does not directly reflect respiratory function. Respiratory rate (Choice B) can provide information on breathing patterns but does not quantify airflow limitation. Arterial blood gases (Choice C) give information about gas exchange but are not as specific for assessing asthma control and severity as peak expiratory flow rate.
2. Which of the following is a common complication of immobility?
- A. Muscle hypertrophy.
- B. Pressure ulcers.
- C. Bone fractures.
- D. Joint stiffness.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B, Pressure ulcers. Immobility can lead to pressure ulcers due to prolonged pressure on the skin, especially over bony prominences. Muscle hypertrophy (Choice A) is not a common complication of immobility; instead, muscle atrophy is more likely to occur due to disuse. Bone fractures (Choice C) can result from trauma but are not directly associated with immobility unless there is a fall or accident. Joint stiffness (Choice D) can develop due to lack of movement but is not as common or severe as pressure ulcers in cases of prolonged immobility.
3. A client with cardiovascular disease is scheduled to receive a daily dose of furosemide (Lasix). Which potassium level would cause the nurse to contact the physician before administering the dose?
- A. 3.0 mEq/L
- B. 3.8 mEq/L
- C. 4.2 mEq/L
- D. 5.1 mEq/L
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The normal serum potassium level in adults ranges from 3.5 to 5.1 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is low, indicating hypokalemia and necessitating physician notification before administering furosemide, a loop diuretic that can further lower potassium levels. Potassium levels of 3.8 and 4.2 mEq/L are within the normal range, while a level of 5.1 mEq/L is high (hyperkalemia), but the critical value in this case is the low potassium level that requires immediate attention to prevent potential complications.
4. Which of the following is a primary intervention for a patient with sepsis?
- A. Administering antibiotics
- B. Administering IV fluids
- C. Administering antipyretics
- D. Monitoring blood cultures
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Monitoring blood cultures is a primary intervention for a patient with sepsis because it helps identify the causative organism, which is crucial in guiding appropriate antibiotic therapy. Administering antibiotics (Choice A) is important in treating sepsis but is considered a secondary intervention. Administering IV fluids (Choice B) is also crucial for sepsis management to restore perfusion and hemodynamic stability. Administering antipyretics (Choice C) may help reduce fever, but it is not a primary intervention for managing sepsis.
5. The patient is taking hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL) and digoxin (Lanoxin). Which potential electrolyte imbalance will the nurse monitor for in this patient?
- A. Hypermagnesemia
- B. Hypernatremia
- C. Hypocalcemia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypokalemia. Thiazide diuretics like hydrochlorothiazide can cause hypokalemia. Hypokalemia enhances the effects of digoxin, leading to digoxin toxicity. Thiazides can also cause hypercalcemia. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Hypermagnesemia is not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use. Hypernatremia and hypocalcemia are not the primary electrolyte imbalances to monitor for in this scenario.
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