Nursing Elites

1. In a patient with asthma, which of the following is the most important indicator of respiratory function?

• A. Oxygen saturation.
• B. Respiratory rate.
• C. Arterial blood gases.
• D. Peak expiratory flow rate.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The peak expiratory flow rate is the most important indicator of respiratory function in asthma because it measures how quickly air can be exhaled, reflecting the severity of airflow limitation. Oxygen saturation (Choice A) is important in assessing oxygenation, but it does not directly reflect respiratory function. Respiratory rate (Choice B) can provide information on breathing patterns but does not quantify airflow limitation. Arterial blood gases (Choice C) give information about gas exchange but are not as specific for assessing asthma control and severity as peak expiratory flow rate.

2. A nurse checks the residual volume from a client’s nasogastric tube feeding before administering an intermittent tube feeding and finds 35 mL of gastric contents. What should the nurse do before administering the prescribed 100 mL of formula to the client?

• A. Pour the residual volume into the nasogastric tube through a syringe with the plunger removed
• B. Discard the residual volume properly and record it as output on the client’s fluid balance record
• C. Dilute the residual volume with water and inject it into the nasogastric tube, applying pressure on the plunger
• D. Mix the residual volume with the formula and pour it into the nasogastric tube, using a syringe without a plunger

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After checking the residual feeding contents, the nurse should pour the residual volume back into the stomach by removing the syringe bulb or plunger and then pouring the gastric contents, using the syringe, into the nasogastric tube. This helps ensure that the residual volume is reintroduced into the client's gastrointestinal tract. Option B is incorrect because discarding the residual volume without reinstilling it into the stomach can lead to inaccurate medication administration and potential electrolyte imbalances. Option C is incorrect as diluting the residual volume with water and injecting it under pressure can cause aspiration or discomfort for the client. Option D is incorrect because mixing the residual volume with the formula can alter the prescribed dosage and consistency, potentially affecting the client's nutritional intake and causing complications.

3. A client has just regained bowel sounds after undergoing surgery. The physician has prescribed a clear liquid diet for the client. Which of the following items should the nurse ensure is available in the client’s room before allowing the client to drink?

• A. Straw
• B. Napkin
• C. Oxygen saturation monitor
• D. Suction equipment

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After surgery, when a client has just regained bowel sounds and is prescribed a clear liquid diet, the nurse needs to consider the possibility of impaired swallow reflexes due to anesthesia effects, leading to an increased risk of aspiration. Despite checking the gag and swallow reflexes before offering fluids, having suction equipment readily available in the client's room is essential to manage any potential aspiration risk. Therefore, the correct answer is suction equipment (choice D). Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while a straw, napkin, and oxygen saturation monitor may be useful in other situations, they are not directly related to managing the risk of aspiration associated with offering fluids to a client post-surgery.

4. The nurse is caring for a patient who develops marked edema and a low urine output as a result of heart failure. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

• A. Digoxin (Lanoxin)
• B. Furosemide (Lasix)
• C. Hydrochlorothiazide (HydroDIURIL)
• D. Spironolactone (Aldactone)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In heart failure with marked edema and low urine output, the nurse can expect the provider to order Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts quickly to remove excess fluid from the body, making it an appropriate choice for this patient's condition. Digoxin is used to improve heart function but does not directly address fluid overload. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that is not as potent as Furosemide in managing acute fluid retention. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is typically used in heart failure for its aldosterone-blocking effects and not for immediate fluid removal.

5. In a patient with chronic kidney disease, which of the following lab values would be expected?

• A. Elevated creatinine levels.
• B. Low hemoglobin levels.
• C. Elevated potassium levels.
• D. Low sodium levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: In chronic kidney disease, elevated creatinine levels are expected due to impaired kidney function. Creatinine is a waste product that is typically filtered out by the kidneys. With kidney disease, the clearance of creatinine is reduced, leading to its accumulation in the blood. Low hemoglobin levels (choice B) may be seen in chronic kidney disease due to decreased production of erythropoietin. However, elevated potassium levels (choice C) and low sodium levels (choice D) are more commonly associated with kidney dysfunction but are not as specific indicators of chronic kidney disease as elevated creatinine levels.

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