Nursing Elites

1. Four days following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, the client is exhibiting edema of both lower extremities, and pedal pulses are not palpable. Which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Elevate extremities on pillows
• B. Evaluate edema for pitting
• C. Assess pulses with a vascular Doppler
• D. Wrap the feet with warmed blankets

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to assess pulses with a vascular Doppler. The absence of palpable pedal pulses following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair raises concerns about compromised blood flow, which could lead to serious complications like ischemia or thrombosis. Evaluating and confirming the presence or absence of pulses is crucial to guide further interventions. Elevating extremities on pillows (Choice A) may be beneficial for managing edema, but it is not the immediate priority when pulses are not palpable. Evaluating edema for pitting (Choice B) can provide additional information about fluid status but does not address the primary concern of absent pulses. Wrapping the feet with warmed blankets (Choice D) is not appropriate in this situation and may not address the underlying vascular issue.

2. A 68-year-old client on day 2 after hip surgery has no cardiac history but reports having chest heaviness. The first nursing action should be to:

• A. Inquire about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness.
• B. Administer oxygen via nasal cannula.
• C. Offer pain medication for the chest heaviness.
• D. Inform the physician of the chest heaviness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct first nursing action when a client reports chest heaviness post-hip surgery is to gather more information through assessment. Inquiring about the onset, duration, severity, and precipitating factors of the heaviness is crucial to determine the cause. This approach helps the nurse to gather essential data to make an informed decision regarding the client's care. Administering oxygen (Choice B) may be indicated based on assessment findings, but it is crucial to assess first. Offering pain medication (Choice C) without further assessment is premature and may mask symptoms. Informing the physician (Choice D) should be done after a thorough assessment to provide comprehensive information for appropriate medical decision-making.

3. A client is vomiting. For which acid-base imbalance does the nurse assess the client?

• A. Metabolic acidosis
• B. Metabolic alkalosis
• C. Respiratory acidosis
• D. Respiratory alkalosis

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In a client who is vomiting, the loss of gastric fluid containing hydrochloric acid can lead to metabolic alkalosis. Metabolic alkalosis is caused by the loss of acids such as hydrochloric acid from the body. Therefore, in this scenario, the nurse should assess the client for metabolic alkalosis. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because vomiting does not typically lead to metabolic acidosis, respiratory acidosis, or respiratory alkalosis.

4. The client with chronic renal failure is being taught about the importance of fluid restrictions. Which of the following statements by the client indicates that the teaching has been effective?

• A. I can drink as much fluid as I want, as long as I take my medication.
• B. I will need to limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
• C. I can drink as much water as I want, as long as I limit other fluids.
• D. I will need to drink only when I am thirsty.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'I will need to limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.' In chronic renal failure, fluid restrictions are crucial to prevent fluid overload and further damage to the kidneys. Option A is incorrect as unrestricted fluid intake can worsen the condition. Option C is also incorrect as total fluid intake needs to be restricted, not just other fluids. Option D is not ideal because thirst may not accurately reflect the body's fluid needs in chronic renal failure.

5. A patient is being treated for shock after a motor vehicle accident. The provider orders 6% dextran 75 to be given intravenously. The nurse should expect which outcome as the result of this infusion?

• A. Decreased urine output
• B. Improved blood oxygenation
• C. Increased interstitial fluid
• D. Stabilization of heart rate and blood pressure

Correct answer: D

Rationale: 6% Dextran 75 is a high molecular-weight colloidal solution used to treat shock from burns or trauma. Colloids like 6% dextran 75 are plasma expanders that help increase blood volume, leading to improved heart rate and blood pressure stabilization. The infusion of plasma expanders does not typically decrease urine output. It primarily aims to stabilize circulation rather than affect blood oxygenation or increase interstitial fluid levels.

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