HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Test Bank
1. Four days following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair, the client is exhibiting edema of both lower extremities, and pedal pulses are not palpable. Which action should the nurse implement first?
- A. Elevate extremities on pillows
- B. Evaluate edema for pitting
- C. Assess pulses with a vascular Doppler
- D. Wrap the feet with warmed blankets
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to assess pulses with a vascular Doppler. The absence of palpable pedal pulses following an abdominal aortic aneurysm repair raises concerns about compromised blood flow, which could lead to serious complications like ischemia or thrombosis. Evaluating and confirming the presence or absence of pulses is crucial to guide further interventions. Elevating extremities on pillows (Choice A) may be beneficial for managing edema, but it is not the immediate priority when pulses are not palpable. Evaluating edema for pitting (Choice B) can provide additional information about fluid status but does not address the primary concern of absent pulses. Wrapping the feet with warmed blankets (Choice D) is not appropriate in this situation and may not address the underlying vascular issue.
2. A client with overflow incontinence needs assistance with elimination. What intervention should the nurse include in the plan of care?
- A. Stroke the medial aspect of the thigh.
- B. Use intermittent catheterization.
- C. Provide digital anal stimulation.
- D. Use the Valsalva maneuver.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: In clients with overflow incontinence, the voiding reflex arc is impaired. The Valsalva maneuver, which involves holding the breath and bearing down as if to defecate, can help initiate voiding by applying mechanical pressure. Options A and C (stroking the thigh or anal stimulation) rely on an intact reflex arc to trigger elimination and are not effective for clients with overflow incontinence. Intermittent catheterization (Option B) is a last resort due to the high risk of infection and should only be considered if other interventions fail.
3. The client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is taught to take isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) at 5 PM each day. The client should be instructed that the greatest risk of hypoglycemia will occur at about what time?
- A. 11 AM, shortly before lunch.
- B. 1 PM, shortly after lunch.
- C. 6 PM, shortly after dinner.
- D. 1 AM, while sleeping.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, 1 AM, while sleeping. Isophane insulin suspension NPH (Humulin N) peaks around 6-8 hours after administration, which increases the risk of hypoglycemia during the night. Choice A, 11 AM, shortly before lunch, is incorrect because the peak effect of NPH insulin occurs much later. Choice B, 1 PM, shortly after lunch, is incorrect as it is too early for the peak effect of NPH insulin. Choice C, 6 PM, shortly after dinner, is also incorrect because the peak risk of hypoglycemia with NPH insulin occurs later in the night.
4. A client who has just undergone a skin biopsy is listening to discharge instructions from the nurse. The nurse determines that the client has misunderstood the directions if the client indicates that as part of aftercare he plans to:
- A. Use the antibiotic ointment as prescribed
- B. Return in 7 days to have the sutures removed
- C. Apply cool compresses to the site twice a day for 20 minutes
- D. Call the physician if excessive drainage from the wound occurs
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Applying cool compresses to the site twice a day for 20 minutes is not a recommended aftercare practice for a skin biopsy. After a skin biopsy, it is important to keep the dressing dry and in place for a minimum of 8 hours. Choice A is correct as using the antibiotic ointment as prescribed is a common post-biopsy instruction to prevent infection. Choice B is also correct as returning in 7 days to have the sutures removed is part of the typical follow-up care after a skin biopsy. Choice D is correct as it is important to call the physician if excessive drainage from the wound occurs to prevent complications.
5. A nurse plans care for an older adult client. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care to promote kidney health? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Ensure adequate fluid intake.
- B. Leave the bathroom light on at night.
- C. Encourage use of the toilet every 6 hours.
- D. A & B
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct interventions to promote kidney health in an older adult client include ensuring adequate fluid intake to maintain hydration and leaving the bathroom light on at night to promote safe ambulation. Adequate hydration supports kidney function and helps prevent urinary tract infections. Encouraging the use of the toilet every 6 hours is not specific to kidney health and may not be individualized to the client's needs. Providing thorough perineal care after each voiding is important for hygiene but not directly related to promoting kidney health. Assessing for urinary retention and urinary tract infections is crucial but falls under assessment rather than interventions for promoting kidney health specifically.
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