Nursing Elites

1. A female client is brought to the clinic by her daughter for a flu shot. She has lost significant weight since the last visit. She has poor personal hygiene and inadequate clothing for the weather. The client states that she lives alone and denies problems or concerns. What action should the nurse implement?

• A. Notify social services immediately if suspected elderly abuse is present.
• B. Discuss the need for mental health counseling with the daughter.
• C. Explain to the client the importance of taking better care of herself.
• D. Collect further data to determine whether self-neglect is occurring.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the client presents with significant weight loss, poor hygiene, and inadequate clothing, which are concerning signs of self-neglect. Before taking action, it is crucial for the nurse to collect more data to determine the root cause of these issues. Jumping to conclusions or immediately involving social services without a thorough assessment could potentially harm the client or strain relationships. Discussing the need for mental health counseling with the daughter or simply advising the client to take better care of herself may not address the underlying problem of self-neglect. Therefore, the most appropriate initial action is for the nurse to collect further data to make an informed decision before taking the next steps.

2. A client in the postanesthesia care unit has an as-needed prescription for ondansetron (Zofran). Which of the following occurrences would prompt the nurse to administer this medication to the client?

• A. Paralytic ileus
• B. Incisional pain
• C. Urine retention
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Nausea and vomiting. Ondansetron is an antiemetic used to manage postoperative nausea and vomiting, as well as nausea and vomiting related to chemotherapy. It is not indicated for treating paralytic ileus, incisional pain, or urine retention. Paralytic ileus is a condition of the gastrointestinal tract characterized by the paralysis of intestinal muscles, which would not be treated with ondansetron. Incisional pain is typically managed with analgesics, not antiemetics. Urine retention is a urinary issue that does not involve nausea and vomiting, making ondansetron an inappropriate choice for this condition.

3. In a client with heart failure presenting bilateral +4 edema of the right ankle extending up to midcalf while sitting with legs dependent, what is the priority goal?

• A. Decrease venous congestion.
• B. Maintain normal respirations.
• C. Maintain body temperature.
• D. Prevent injury to lower extremities.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority goal in this scenario is to decrease venous congestion. By elevating the legs above the heart level, venous return is improved, reducing congestion in the lower extremities. This intervention helps decrease swelling and prevents complications such as impaired tissue perfusion. Maintaining normal respirations and body temperature are important aspects of care but are secondary to addressing the immediate issue of venous congestion. Preventing injury to lower extremities is also essential but takes precedence after managing the venous congestion to prevent further complications.

4. A client with a completed ischemic stroke has a blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Position the head of the bed (HOB) flat.
• B. Withhold intravenous fluids.
• C. Administer a bolus of IV fluids.
• D. Give an antihypertensive medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a completed ischemic stroke, an elevated blood pressure like 180/90 mm Hg requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Giving an antihypertensive medication is essential to reduce the risk of recurrent stroke or complications related to hypertension. Positioning the head of the bed flat, withholding IV fluids, or administering a bolus of IV fluids are not appropriate actions for managing elevated blood pressure in this scenario and may not address the underlying cause of the hypertension or prevent potential complications.

5. A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should have which of the following laboratory results reviewed to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC).
• B. Prothrombin time (PT).
• C. International normalized ratio (INR).
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the most appropriate laboratory result to review when evaluating the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and the INR helps determine if the dosage is within a therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Choice A, a Complete Blood Count (CBC), provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B, Prothrombin time (PT), measures the time it takes for blood to clot but is not as specific for monitoring warfarin therapy as the INR. Choice D, Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the primary test used to monitor warfarin therapy.

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