HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving oral potassium chloride supplements. The nurse notes that the patient has a heart rate of 120 beats per minute and has had a urine output of 200 mL in the past 12 hours. The patient reports abdominal cramping. Which action will the nurse take?
- A. Contact the provider to request an order for serum electrolytes.
- B. Encourage the patient to consume less fluids.
- C. Report symptoms of hyperkalemia to the provider.
- D. Request an order to increase the patient’s potassium dose.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Oliguria, tachycardia, and abdominal cramping are signs of hyperkalemia, so the nurse should request an order for serum electrolytes to assess the patient's potassium levels. Encouraging the patient to consume less fluids would not address the underlying issue of potential hyperkalemia. Reporting symptoms of hyperkalemia to the provider is not as proactive as directly requesting serum electrolytes. Increasing the patient's potassium dose would worsen hyperkalemia, which is already suspected based on the symptoms presented.
2. A pregnant client tells the nurse, “I am experiencing a burning pain when I urinate.” How should the nurse respond?
- A. This means labor will start soon. Prepare to go to the hospital.
- B. You probably have a urinary tract infection. Drink more cranberry juice.
- C. Make an appointment with your provider to have your infection treated.
- D. Your pelvic wall is weakening. Pelvic muscle exercises should help.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Pregnant clients with a urinary tract infection require prompt and aggressive treatment because cystitis can lead to acute pyelonephritis during pregnancy. The nurse should encourage the client to make an appointment and have the infection treated. Burning pain when urinating does not indicate the start of labor or weakening of pelvic muscles. Choice A is incorrect because burning pain during urination does not signify the start of labor. Choice B is incorrect because while cranberry juice may help prevent urinary tract infections, it is not a treatment. Choice D is incorrect because burning pain when urinating is not indicative of weakening pelvic muscles.
3. A client is scheduled for a barium swallow (esophagography) in 2 days. The nurse, providing preprocedure instructions, should tell the client to:
- A. Eat a regular supper and breakfast
- B. Remove all metal and jewelry before the test
- C. Expect diarrhea for a few days after the procedure
- D. Take all oral medications as scheduled with milk on the day of the test
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: 'Remove all metal and jewelry before the test.' Before a barium swallow procedure, the client should fast for 8 to 12 hours to ensure the stomach and intestines are empty for optimal visualization. Removing all metal and jewelry is essential to prevent any interference with x-ray imaging. Choice A is incorrect because the client should fast, not eat supper and breakfast, before the test. Choice C is incorrect as diarrhea is not an expected outcome of a barium swallow. Choice D is incorrect as the client should not take any oral medications with milk on the day of the test to ensure accurate test results.
4. The client with chronic renal failure asks why a low-protein diet is necessary. Which of the following is the best response by the nurse?
- A. It reduces the workload on your kidneys.
- B. It helps prevent the buildup of waste products.
- C. It helps maintain electrolyte balance in your body.
- D. It helps prevent dehydration.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A low-protein diet is necessary for clients with chronic renal failure to help prevent the buildup of waste products, such as urea, in the body. Choice A is incorrect as the primary reason for a low-protein diet is to manage waste product accumulation rather than reducing the workload on the kidneys. Choice C is incorrect as electrolyte balance is typically managed through dietary restrictions beyond protein intake. Choice D is incorrect as preventing dehydration is not the primary purpose of a low-protein diet in chronic renal failure.
5. The client is being taught about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which information should be provided?
- A. Two weeks before menstruation.
- B. Vaginal mucous discharge is thick.
- C. Low basal temperature.
- D. First thing in the morning.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two weeks before menstruation.' Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins during a typical 28-day cycle. To increase the chances of conception, sexual intercourse should occur within 24 hours of ovulation. High estrogen levels during ovulation lead to changes in vaginal mucous discharge, making it more 'slippery' and stretchy. Basal temperature rises during ovulation. The timing of intercourse during the day is less significant than ensuring it happens around ovulation. The other options are incorrect because planning intercourse two weeks before menstruation is likely to miss the fertile window, thick vaginal mucous discharge indicates ovulation is approaching, and low basal temperature is not indicative of the fertile period.
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