Nursing Elites

1. When assessing an individual with peripheral vascular disease, which clinical manifestation would indicate complete arterial obstruction in the lower left leg?

• A. Aching pain in the left calf.
• B. Burning pain in the left calf.
• C. Numbness and tingling in the left leg.
• D. Coldness of the left foot and ankle.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Coldness of the left foot and ankle is the correct clinical manifestation indicating complete arterial obstruction in the lower left leg. Complete arterial obstruction results in reduced blood flow, leading to decreased temperature in the affected area. Aching pain (Choice A) and burning pain (Choice B) are more commonly associated with partial obstructions or ischemia, while numbness and tingling (Choice C) can be indicative of nerve involvement or compromised circulation, but not specifically complete arterial obstruction. The coldness in the foot and ankle is a result of severely reduced blood flow, which impairs the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the tissues in that area, leading to a lower temperature. This symptom is a critical indicator of a more severe blockage compared to the other options provided.

2. A client without a history of respiratory disease has a pulse oximeter in place after surgery. The nurse monitors the pulse oximeter readings to ensure that oxygen saturation remains above:

• A. 85%
• B. 89%
• C. 95%
• D. 100%

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Pulse oximetry is a noninvasive method of continuously monitoring the oxygen saturation of hemoglobin (SaO2). In the absence of underlying respiratory disease, the expected oxygen saturation level is at least 95%. Oxygen saturation levels below 95% may indicate hypoxemia, which can compromise tissue perfusion and oxygen delivery to vital organs. Therefore, maintaining oxygen saturation above 95% is crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation post-surgery. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as they represent oxygen saturation levels that are below the expected value for a client without a history of respiratory disease, which should be at least 95%.

3. A client has lost a significant amount of blood due to complications during surgery. What parameter does the nurse recognize as the earliest indication of new decreases in fluid volume?

• A. Pulse rate
• B. Blood pressure
• C. Pulmonary artery systolic pressure
• D. Pulmonary artery end-diastolic pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The earliest indication of new decreases in fluid volume is often recognized by an increase in pulse rate. Cardiac output is influenced by circulating blood volume, heart pumping action, and vascular tone. As fluid volume decreases, the body compensates by increasing the pulse rate. The formula for cardiac output is pulse rate multiplied by stroke volume. An elevated pulse rate helps maintain blood pressure with minor volume depletion. Pulmonary artery systolic pressure and pulmonary artery end-diastolic pressure, obtained through a pulmonary artery catheter, provide insights into pulmonary artery and left ventricle pressures at the end of diastole. These parameters are not the earliest indicators of new decreases in fluid volume compared to pulse rate.

4. A client presents with a urine specific gravity of 1.018. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Evaluate the client’s intake and output for the past 24 hours.
• B. Document the finding in the chart and continue to monitor.
• C. Obtain a specimen for a urine culture and sensitivity.
• D. Encourage the client to drink more fluids, especially water.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A urine specific gravity of 1.018 falls within the normal range, indicating adequate hydration. Therefore, the appropriate action is to document this finding in the client's chart and continue monitoring. There is no need to evaluate intake and output, as the specific gravity is normal. Obtaining a urine culture and sensitivity or encouraging increased fluid intake is unnecessary in this situation.

5. A 57-year-old male client is scheduled to have a stress-thallium test the following morning and is NPO after midnight. At 0130, he is agitated because he cannot eat and is demanding food. Which response is best for the nurse to provide to this client?

• A. I'm sorry sir, you have a prescription for nothing by mouth from midnight tonight.
• B. I will let you have one cracker, but that is all you can have for the rest of tonight.
• C. What did the healthcare provider tell you about the test you are having tomorrow?
• D. The test you are having tomorrow requires that you have nothing by mouth tonight.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Being direct and explaining to the client that the test requires him to be NPO, is the most therapeutic statement because the nurse is responding to the client's question and providing him the reason why.

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