HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam
1. What is a priority goal for the diabetic client who is taking insulin and experiencing nausea and vomiting from a viral illness or influenza?
- A. Ensuring adequate food intake.
- B. Managing personal health.
- C. Relieving pain.
- D. Increasing physical activity.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Ensuring adequate food intake is a priority goal for a diabetic client taking insulin and experiencing nausea and vomiting due to a viral illness or influenza because maintaining proper nutrition is essential to prevent complications such as ketoacidosis. During illness, it is crucial for diabetic individuals to continue to consume appropriate amounts of food to maintain stable blood sugar levels and prevent hypoglycemia. Managing personal health (choice B) is important but not the priority in this situation. Relieving pain (choice C) may be necessary if present but is not the priority over ensuring food intake. Increasing physical activity (choice D) is not recommended during illness, especially when the individual is experiencing nausea and vomiting.
2. The nurse is preparing to administer trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) to a patient who is being treated for a urinary tract infection. The nurse learns that the patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus and takes a sulfonylurea oral antidiabetic drug. The nurse will monitor this patient closely for which effect?
- A. Headaches
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hypoglycemia
- D. Superinfection
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a patient takes oral antidiabetic agents (sulfonylurea) along with sulfonamides like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole, it can lead to an increased hypoglycemic effect. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the patient closely for hypoglycemia. Headaches, hypertension, and superinfection are not typically associated with the interaction between sulfonamides and sulfonylureas. Examples of antidiabetic sulfonylurea medications include glipizide, glimepiride, glyburide, tolazamide, and tolbutamide.
3. A client who is receiving chemotherapy asks the nurse, 'Why is so much of my hair falling out each day?' Which response by the nurse best explains the reason for alopecia?
- A. 'Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.'
- B. 'Alopecia is a common side effect you will experience during long-term steroid therapy.'
- C. 'Your hair will grow back completely after your course of chemotherapy is completed.'
- D. 'The chemotherapy causes permanent alterations in your hair follicles that lead to hair loss.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Chemotherapy affects the cells of the body that grow rapidly, both normal and malignant.' Chemotherapy targets rapidly dividing cells, which include not only cancer cells but also healthy cells like those in hair follicles. This leads to alopecia (hair loss) as a common side effect. Choice B is incorrect as alopecia is primarily associated with chemotherapy and not long-term steroid therapy. Choice C is incorrect because while hair may grow back after chemotherapy, it may not always be to the same extent or thickness. Choice D is incorrect as chemotherapy-induced hair loss is often temporary and reversible, not permanent alterations in hair follicles.
4. The patient weighs 75 kg and is receiving IV fluids at a rate of 50 mL/hour, having consumed 100 mL orally in the past 24 hours. What action will the nurse take?
- A. Contact the provider to ask about increasing the IV rate to 90 mL/hour.
- B. Discuss with the provider the need to increase the IV rate to 150 mL/hour.
- C. Encourage the patient to drink more water so the IV can be discontinued.
- D. Instruct the patient to drink 250 mL of water every 8 hours.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The recommended daily fluid intake for adults is 30 to 40 mL/kg/day. For a patient weighing 75 kg, the minimum intake should be 2250 mL/day. The patient is currently receiving 1200 mL IV and 100 mL orally, totaling 1300 mL. Increasing the IV rate to 90 mL/hour would provide a total of 2160 mL, which could meet the patient's needs if oral intake continues. Option B suggests increasing the IV rate to 150 mL/hour, resulting in an excessive fluid intake of 3600 mL/day, surpassing the recommended amount. Option C, encouraging increased fluid intake, is not recommended as the patient is already struggling with fluid intake. Option D, instructing the patient to drink 250 mL of water every 8 hours, would still fall short of the required fluid intake of 2250 mL/day.
5. A 49-year-old female client arrives at the clinic for an annual exam and asks the nurse why she becomes excessively diaphoretic and feels warm during nighttime. What is the nurse's best response?
- A. Explain the effects of follicle-stimulating and luteinizing hormones.
- B. Discuss perimenopause and related comfort measures.
- C. Assess lung fields and check for a cough productive of blood-tinged mucus.
- D. Inquire if a fever above 101°F (38.3°C) has occurred in the last 24 hours.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. The symptoms described by the client, excessive diaphoresis and feeling warm at night, are characteristic of perimenopause. During this period, lower estrogen levels lead to surges in follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH), resulting in vasomotor instability, night sweats, and hot flashes. Therefore, discussing perimenopause and related comfort measures with the client is essential to provide education and support. Choice A is incorrect because explaining the effects of FSH and LH alone does not directly address the client's current symptoms. Choice C is irrelevant as it focuses on assessing lung fields and cough symptoms, which are not related to the client's menopausal symptoms. Choice D is not the best response as it is more focused on ruling out fever as a cause, which is not typically associated with the symptoms described by the client.
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