HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Practice Quiz
1. The healthcare professional is reviewing a patient’s chart prior to administering gentamicin (Garamycin) and notes that the last serum peak drug level was 9 mcg/mL and the last trough level was 2 mcg/mL. What action will the healthcare professional take?
- A. Administer the next dose as prescribed.
- B. Obtain repeat peak and trough levels before administering the next dose.
- C. Report potential drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider.
- D. Notify the patient’s healthcare provider of decreased drug therapeutic level.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Gentamicin peak levels should ideally be between 5 to 8 mcg/mL, and trough levels should be within the range of 0.5 to 2 mcg/mL to ensure therapeutic efficacy while minimizing toxicity risk. In this case, the patient's peak level is above the recommended range, and the trough level is at the higher end, indicating potential drug toxicity. Therefore, the correct action for the healthcare professional is to report the possibility of drug toxicity to the patient’s healthcare provider. Administering the next dose as prescribed (Choice A) would exacerbate the toxicity risk. Obtaining repeat peak and trough levels (Choice B) may confirm the current levels but does not address the immediate concern of potential toxicity. Reporting a decreased drug therapeutic level (Choice D) is not the priority in this scenario, as the focus should be on addressing the potential toxicity issue.
2. The health care provider has changed a client's prescription from the PO to the IV route of administration. The nurse should anticipate which change in the pharmacokinetic properties of the medication?
- A. The client will experience increased tolerance to the drug's effects and may need a higher dose.
- B. The onset of action of the drug will occur more rapidly, resulting in a more rapid effect.
- C. The medication will be more highly protein-bound, increasing the duration of action.
- D. The therapeutic index will be increased, placing the client at greater risk for toxicity.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: When a medication is administered via the IV route, the absorptive process is bypassed, leading to a more rapid onset of action. This results in a faster effect of the drug. Choice A is incorrect because changing the route of administration does not necessarily lead to increased tolerance or the need for a higher dose. Choice C is incorrect as changing the route of administration does not directly affect the protein binding of a medication. Choice D is incorrect because increasing the therapeutic index would actually reduce the risk of toxicity, not increase it.
3. A public health nurse is working with a community to improve access to dental care. Which intervention is most likely to be effective?
- A. Setting up dental clinics in accessible locations
- B. Distributing flyers with information about dental services
- C. Offering transportation vouchers for dental appointments
- D. Partnering with local businesses to promote dental health
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Setting up dental clinics in accessible locations is the most effective intervention to improve access to dental care. By having dental clinics in easily reachable places, community members are more likely to seek and utilize dental services. Distributing flyers may raise awareness, but it may not address the issue of physical accessibility to dental care. Offering transportation vouchers could help with transportation barriers but might not address the core issue of proximity to dental services. Partnering with local businesses to promote dental health is a good initiative, but it may not directly improve access to dental care as setting up clinics in accessible locations would.
4. An older client with SIRS has a temperature of 101.8°F, a heart rate of 110 beats per minute, and a respiratory rate of 24 breaths per minute. Which additional finding is most important to report to the healthcare provider?
- A. Serum creatinine of 2.0 mg/dL
- B. Elevated WBC count
- C. Blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg
- D. Oxygen saturation of 95%
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A serum creatinine level of 2.0 mg/dL indicates possible acute kidney injury, which can occur during severe systemic inflammatory response syndrome (SIRS). Reporting this value promptly allows for interventions to prevent further renal damage. Elevated WBC count (choice B) is a common feature of SIRS and may not be as urgently indicative of immediate organ damage as high creatinine levels. A blood pressure of 100/60 mmHg (choice C) is relatively low but may be a typical finding in SIRS; however, renal function is critical in this context. Oxygen saturation of 95% (choice D) is within normal limits and is not as concerning as a high creatinine level in this scenario.
5. Which annual screening should the nurse include when planning eye health programs at a preschool?
- A. visual acuity
- B. red light reflex
- C. conjunctivitis
- D. glaucoma
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: visual acuity. Screening for visual acuity is essential in preschoolers to identify any vision issues early on, such as nearsightedness or farsightedness, which may require corrective lenses or other interventions. Red light reflex (choice B) is a method used to assess the eyes for abnormalities, but it is not typically included in routine preschool eye health screenings. Conjunctivitis (choice C) is an eye infection and not a screening test. Glaucoma (choice D) is a condition more commonly associated with adults and the elderly, making it less relevant for preschool eye health programs.