Nursing Elites

1. A patient who is being treated for dehydration is receiving 5% dextrose and 0.45% normal saline with 20 mEq/L potassium chloride at a rate of 125 mL/hour. The nurse assuming care for the patient reviews the patient’s serum electrolytes and notes a serum sodium level of 140 mEq/L and a serum potassium level of 3.6 mEq/L. The patient had a urine output of 250 mL during the last 12-hour shift. Which action will the nurse take?

• A. Contact the patient’s provider to discuss increasing the potassium chloride to 40 mEq/L.
• B. Continue the intravenous fluids as ordered and reassess the patient frequently.
• C. Notify the provider and discuss increasing the rate of fluids to 200 mL/hour.
• D. Stop the intravenous fluids and notify the provider of the assessment findings.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The patient’s potassium level is within normal limits, but the decreased urine output indicates the patient should not receive additional IV potassium. Increasing potassium chloride to 40 mEq/L is not needed as the level is normal. Stopping the IV fluids is appropriate due to the decreased urine output, which suggests potential fluid overload. The nurse should notify the provider of the assessment findings for further management. Increasing the rate of fluids to 200 mL/hour is not recommended without addressing the decreased urine output first.

2. What is the most common side effect of diuretics such as furosemide (Lasix)?

• A. Hypokalemia.
• B. Hyperkalemia.
• C. Hypernatremia.
• D. Hyponatremia.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is 'Hypokalemia.' Diuretics like furosemide increase the excretion of potassium, leading to hypokalemia as a common side effect. Hyperkalemia (choice B) is the opposite condition characterized by high potassium levels, which is not typically associated with furosemide use. Hypernatremia (choice C) is increased sodium levels, while hyponatremia (choice D) is decreased sodium levels, neither of which are the most common side effects of furosemide. Therefore, choice A is the best answer.

3. Which lab result would be most indicative of renal failure?

• A. Elevated creatinine levels.
• B. Low potassium levels.
• C. Low calcium levels.
• D. High sodium levels.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Elevated creatinine levels. Creatinine is a waste product that is normally filtered by the kidneys. Elevated creatinine levels indicate impaired kidney function, which is commonly seen in renal failure. Choice B, low potassium levels, is not typically associated with renal failure. In fact, renal failure is more likely to cause high potassium levels due to the kidneys' inability to excrete potassium effectively. Choice C, low calcium levels, are not directly indicative of renal failure. Renal failure can lead to disturbances in calcium levels, but low calcium levels alone are not a specific marker for renal failure. Choice D, high sodium levels, are also not typically associated with renal failure. In renal failure, there may be disturbances in sodium levels, but high sodium levels alone are not a direct indicator of renal failure.

4. What is an ideal goal of treatment set by the nurse in the care plan for a client diagnosed with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema?

• A. Maintaining oxygen saturation above 92%
• B. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds
• C. Maintaining a balanced intake and output
• D. Absence of shortness of breath at rest

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The ideal goal of treatment for a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD) to reduce the risk of pulmonary edema is to maintain a balanced intake and output. This helps in achieving optimal fluid balance, enabling the heart to eject blood effectively without increasing pressure in the left ventricle and pulmonary vessels. While maintaining oxygen saturation above 92% is important for adequate tissue oxygenation, the primary focus in this scenario is fluid balance. Absence of crackles and wheezes in lung sounds is important to assess for pulmonary status, but it is not the primary goal to prevent pulmonary edema specifically. Similarly, absence of shortness of breath at rest is a relevant goal, but the emphasis in CKD management is on fluid balance to prevent pulmonary complications.

5. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient who will receive oral levofloxacin (Levaquin) to treat pneumonia. The patient takes an oral hypoglycemic medication and uses over-the-counter (OTC) antacids to treat occasional heartburn. The patient reports frequent arthritis pain and takes acetaminophen when needed. Which statement by the nurse is correct when teaching this patient?

• A. You may take antacids with levofloxacin to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
• B. You may take nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs) for arthritis pain.
• C. You should monitor your serum glucose more closely while taking levofloxacin.
• D. You should take levofloxacin on an empty stomach to improve absorption.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Levofloxacin may increase the effects of oral hypoglycemic medications, so patients taking these should be advised to monitor their serum glucose levels closely.

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