which of the following is a characteristic of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease copd
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1. Which of the following is a characteristic of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Decreased lung elasticity. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is characterized by a loss of lung elasticity, which leads to difficulty in exhaling air. This decreased elasticity results in air becoming trapped in the lungs, making it challenging for the individual to breathe effectively. Choice A is incorrect as COPD is associated with decreased lung compliance, not increased compliance. Choice C is incorrect as individuals with COPD often have a decreased respiratory rate due to impaired lung function. Choice D is incorrect as COPD causes limited lung expansion due to factors like air trapping and hyperinflation.

2. A client with cardiovascular disease is scheduled to receive a daily dose of furosemide (Lasix). Which potassium level would cause the nurse to contact the physician before administering the dose?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The normal serum potassium level in adults ranges from 3.5 to 5.1 mEq/L. A potassium level of 3.0 mEq/L is low, indicating hypokalemia and necessitating physician notification before administering furosemide, a loop diuretic that can further lower potassium levels. Potassium levels of 3.8 and 4.2 mEq/L are within the normal range, while a level of 5.1 mEq/L is high (hyperkalemia), but the critical value in this case is the low potassium level that requires immediate attention to prevent potential complications.

3. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors may be prescribed for the client with diabetes mellitus to reduce vascular changes and possibly prevent or delay the development of:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Renal failure. ACE inhibitors are commonly used in clients with diabetes mellitus to help reduce the progression of diabetic nephropathy by improving renal blood flow. This medication class can help prevent or delay the development of renal failure in these clients. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because ACE inhibitors do not have a direct impact on preventing or delaying the development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, pancreatic cancer, or cerebrovascular accidents in clients with diabetes mellitus.

4. A client’s baseline vital signs are temperature 98°F oral, pulse 74 beats/min, respiratory rate 18 breaths/min, and blood pressure 124/76 mm Hg. The client suddenly spikes a fever to 103°F. Which of the following respiratory rates would the nurse anticipate as part of the body’s response to the change in client status?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: When a client experiences a fever, there is an increase in body temperature, leading to a higher metabolic rate and oxygen demand. As a result, the respiratory rate typically increases to meet the body's increased oxygen needs. Therefore, in response to the fever spike from 98°F to 103°F, the nurse would anticipate a higher respiratory rate. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because a decrease in body temperature, not an increase as seen in fever, would lead to a decrease in respiratory rate to conserve energy and oxygen consumption.

5. A client in the emergency department is severely dehydrated and is prescribed 3 L of intravenous fluid over 6 hours. At what rate (mL/hr) should the nurse set the intravenous pump to infuse the fluids? (Record your answer using a whole number.)

Correct answer: A

Rationale: To calculate the rate of the intravenous pump, divide the total volume of fluid (3 L = 3000 mL) by the total time in hours (6 hours), which equals 500 mL/hr. The correct answer is A. Choice B (400 mL/hr) is incorrect as it would result in a slower infusion rate. Choice C (550 mL/hr) and Choice D (600 mL/hr) are incorrect as they would result in a faster infusion rate, exceeding the prescribed amount of fluid to be infused over 6 hours.

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