HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Assignment Exam
1. The nurse is assessing a client with a diagnosis of pre-renal acute kidney injury (AKI). Which condition would the nurse expect to find in the client’s recent history?
- A. Pyelonephritis
- B. Myocardial infarction
- C. Bladder cancer
- D. Kidney stones
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In pre-renal acute kidney injury, there is a decrease in perfusion to the kidneys. Myocardial infarction can lead to decreased blood flow to the kidneys, causing pre-renal AKI. Pyelonephritis is an intrinsic/intrarenal cause of AKI involving kidney damage. Bladder cancer and kidney stones are post-renal causes of AKI due to urinary flow obstruction, not related to perfusion issues seen in pre-renal AKI.
2. Why is lactated Ringer’s solution given to a patient experiencing vomiting and diarrhea?
- A. To increase interstitial and intracellular hydration
- B. To maintain plasma volume over time
- C. To pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid
- D. To replace water and electrolytes
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Lactated Ringer’s solution is an isotonic solution commonly used to replace water and electrolytes lost due to conditions like vomiting and diarrhea. It helps to restore fluid balance by replacing the lost volume and electrolytes. Option A is incorrect because hypotonic fluids, not lactated Ringer’s solution, increase interstitial and intracellular hydration. Option B is incorrect as colloidal solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, are used to maintain plasma volume over time. Option C is incorrect as hypertonic solutions, not lactated Ringer’s solution, pull water from the interstitial space into the extracellular fluid.
3. What discharge instruction is most important for a client after a kidney transplant?
- A. Weigh weekly.
- B. Report symptoms of secondary Candidiasis.
- C. Use daily reminders to take immunosuppressants.
- D. Stop cigarette smoking.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: After a kidney transplant, it is crucial for the client to adhere to the prescribed immunosuppressive therapy to prevent organ rejection. The client must take medications like corticosteroids and azathioprine (Imuran) regularly for the rest of their life. Using daily reminders is essential to ensure compliance with the medication regimen, as missing doses can increase the risk of organ rejection. Weighing weekly, reporting symptoms of secondary Candidiasis, and stopping cigarette smoking are important aspects of post-transplant care but may not be as critical as ensuring proper intake of immunosuppressants to prevent rejection.
4. A client has made an appointment for her annual Papanicolaou test (a.k.a. Pap smear). The nurse who schedules the appointment should tell the client that:
- A. The test cannot be performed while the client is menstruating
- B. Vaginal douching is required at least 24 hours before the test
- C. Spicy foods should not be eaten on the day of the test
- D. The test has absolutely no discomfort associated with it
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. A Pap smear cannot be performed with accurate results during menstruation. Menstrual blood may interfere with the test results. Choice B is incorrect as vaginal douching should be avoided for at least 24 hours before the test to prevent altering the cervical cells. Choice C is incorrect as there is no restriction on spicy foods before a Pap smear. Choice D is incorrect as some women may experience mild discomfort during the test, although it is generally well-tolerated.
5. A client is tested for HIV with the use of an enzyme-linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA), and the test result is positive. The nurse should tell the client that:
- A. HIV infection has been confirmed
- B. The client probably has an opportunistic infection
- C. The test will need to be confirmed with the use of a Western blot
- D. A positive test is a normal result and does not mean that the client is infected with HIV
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When an ELISA test for HIV is positive, it is essential to confirm the result with a Western blot. The Western blot is the confirmatory test for HIV. Choice A is incorrect because a positive ELISA test does not confirm HIV infection. Choice B is incorrect as it assumes a different diagnosis. Choice D is incorrect because a positive ELISA test does indicate potential HIV infection and requires confirmation.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$89/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access