HESI RN
Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet
1. The client with chronic renal failure is being taught about fluid restrictions by the nurse. Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?
- A. I can drink as much water as I want, as long as I limit my salt intake.
- B. I should limit my fluid intake to prevent fluid overload.
- C. I can skip dialysis sessions if I feel tired.
- D. I can eat whatever I want, as long as I take my medications.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Choice C is the correct answer because clients with chronic renal failure should not skip dialysis sessions. Skipping dialysis can lead to serious complications and worsen the client's condition. It is crucial for clients to understand the importance of adhering to their dialysis schedule for optimal management of chronic renal failure. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because they demonstrate understanding of fluid restrictions, the need to limit fluid intake to prevent overload, and the importance of medication compliance, respectively. These statements show appropriate knowledge and do not indicate a need for further teaching.
2. A nurse teaches clients about the difference between urge incontinence and stress incontinence. Which statements should the nurse include in this education? (Select all that apply.)
- A. Urge incontinence involves a post-void residual volume less than 50 mL.
- B. Stress incontinence occurs due to weak pelvic floor muscles.
- C. Stress incontinence usually occurs in people with dementia.
- D. Urge incontinence can be managed by increasing fluid intake.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct statement to include in the education about urge incontinence and stress incontinence is choice B. Stress incontinence occurs due to weak pelvic floor muscles or urethral sphincter, leading to the inability to tighten the urethra sufficiently to overcome increased detrusor pressure. This condition is common after childbirth when pelvic muscles are stretched and weakened. Urge incontinence, on the other hand, is characterized by the inability to suppress the contraction signal from the detrusor muscle. It is often associated with abnormal detrusor contractions, which can be due to neurological abnormalities rather than post-void residual volume. Choice A is incorrect because urge incontinence is not defined by post-void residual volume. Choice C is incorrect as stress incontinence is not usually linked to dementia. Choice D is incorrect because increasing fluid intake is not a management strategy for urge incontinence.
3. What most likely led to the 67-year-old woman who lives alone tripping on a rug in her home and fracturing her hip?
- A. Failing eyesight causing an unsafe environment.
- B. Renal osteodystrophy due to chronic renal failure.
- C. Osteoporosis due to hormonal changes.
- D. Cardiovascular changes leading to small strokes impairing mental acuity.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Osteoporosis, caused by hormonal changes in later life, is the most likely predisposing factor for the fracture in the proximal end of her femur. Osteoporosis leads to reduced bone density, making bones more fragile and susceptible to fractures, especially in the elderly. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to directly lead to a hip fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight (choice A) could contribute to the fall but is not the main predisposing factor for the fracture. Renal osteodystrophy (choice B) and cardiovascular changes (choice D) are less commonly associated with hip fractures compared to osteoporosis in elderly women.
4. An unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) reports to the nurse that a client with a postoperative wound infection has a temperature of 103°F (39.4°C), blood pressure of 90/70, pulse of 124 beats/minute, and respirations of 28 breaths/minute. When assessing the client, findings include mottled skin appearance and confusion. Which action should the nurse take first?
- A. Transfer the client to the ICU.
- B. Initiate an infusion of intravenous (IV) fluids.
- C. Assess the client's core temperature.
- D. Obtain a wound specimen for culture.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Initiating an infusion of IV fluids is the priority action to stabilize blood pressure in a client with signs of sepsis. Intravenous fluids help maintain perfusion to vital organs and prevent further deterioration. Option A is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's condition can be initiated in the current setting. Option C, assessing the client's core temperature, is important but not the most critical action at this time. Option D, obtaining a wound specimen for culture, is important for identifying the causative organism but is not the first priority in managing a client with signs of sepsis.
5. In a patient with pneumonia, what is the primary goal of treatment?
- A. Reducing inflammation.
- B. Eliminating the infection.
- C. Reducing pain.
- D. Preventing complications.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The primary goal of treating pneumonia is to eliminate the infection. Antibiotics are commonly used to target the specific pathogen causing pneumonia. While reducing inflammation and preventing complications are important aspects of treatment, the key focus initially is on eradicating the infectious agent to improve the patient's condition and prevent further spread of the infection.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI RN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI RN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access