a client is placed on a mechanical ventilator following a cerebral hemorrhage and vecuronium bromide norcuron 004 mgkg q12 hours iv is prescribed what
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam Quizlet

1. A client is placed on a mechanical ventilator following a cerebral hemorrhage, and vecuronium bromide (Norcuron) 0.04 mg/kg q12 hours IV is prescribed. What is the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing diagnosis for a client on a mechanical ventilator receiving vecuronium bromide is 'Impaired communication related to paralysis of skeletal muscles.' Vecuronium is a skeletal muscle relaxant that causes diaphragmatic paralysis, leading to the inability of the client to communicate effectively. This is a crucial nursing concern as it impacts the client's ability to express needs and participate in care. Option B 'High risk for infection related to increased intracranial pressure' is not the priority in this scenario as the client's condition is related to the effects of the medication and mechanical ventilation, not directly to increased intracranial pressure. Option C 'Potential for injury related to impaired lung expansion' is important but not the priority over impaired communication. Option D 'Social isolation related to inability to communicate' is not the priority nursing diagnosis in this situation as it focuses more on psychosocial aspects rather than the immediate physiological concern of communication impairment.

2. The nurse is caring for a patient who develops marked edema and a low urine output as a result of heart failure. Which medication will the nurse expect the provider to order for this patient?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In heart failure with marked edema and low urine output, the nurse can expect the provider to order Furosemide (Lasix). Furosemide is a loop diuretic that acts quickly to remove excess fluid from the body, making it an appropriate choice for this patient's condition. Digoxin is used to improve heart function but does not directly address fluid overload. Hydrochlorothiazide is a thiazide diuretic that is not as potent as Furosemide in managing acute fluid retention. Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that is typically used in heart failure for its aldosterone-blocking effects and not for immediate fluid removal.

3. After a session of hemodialysis, the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following complications of hemodialysis?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is 'B: Hypotension.' Hypotension is a common complication of hemodialysis because fluid removal during the process can lead to a drop in blood pressure. The nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of hypotension such as dizziness, lightheadedness, or a decrease in blood pressure readings. Choice 'A: Hyperkalemia' is incorrect because hemodialysis actually helps lower potassium levels by removing excess potassium from the blood. Choice 'C: Infection' is incorrect as it is not a direct complication of hemodialysis but rather a risk associated with invasive procedures. Choice 'D: Fever' is incorrect as fever is not a typical immediate post-hemodialysis complication unless an underlying infection is present.

4. A nurse has a prescription to discontinue a client’s nasogastric tube. The nurse auscultates the client’s bowel sounds, positions the client properly, and flushes the tube with 15 mL of air to clear secretions. The nurse then instructs the client to take a deep breath and:

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to instruct the client to hold their breath during tube removal. This is because the airway may be temporarily obstructed during the removal process. By holding their breath, the client can help prevent aspiration or discomfort during the removal of the nasogastric tube. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because exhaling, bearing down, or breathing normally during tube removal may not provide the necessary protection against aspiration or discomfort that holding the breath does.

5. Which of the following is the best indicator of long-term glycemic control in a patient with diabetes?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Hemoglobin A1c. Hemoglobin A1c measures the average blood glucose level over the past 2-3 months, providing a reliable indicator of long-term glycemic control. Fasting blood glucose levels (choice A) only offer a snapshot of the current glucose level and can fluctuate throughout the day. Postprandial blood glucose levels (choice B) reflect glucose levels after meals but do not give a comprehensive view of long-term control. Random blood glucose levels (choice D) are taken at any time and lack the consistency needed to assess long-term glycemic control effectively. Therefore, Hemoglobin A1c is the superior choice for monitoring and managing diabetes over an extended period.

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