Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate that the client is experiencing a complication of the treatment?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• C. Increased heart rate.
• D. Fatigue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg during hemodialysis may indicate fluid overload or an ineffective dialysis session, which can lead to complications such as heart failure or pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal and expected finding during hemodialysis, indicating proper filtration of waste products. Increased heart rate can be a normal compensatory response to hemodialysis due to fluid shifts and should be monitored but does not necessarily indicate a complication. Fatigue is a common symptom in clients with chronic renal failure undergoing hemodialysis and is not specific to complications of the treatment.

2. A client who has just undergone surgery suddenly experiences chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea. The nurse suspects that the client has a pulmonary embolism and immediately sets about:

• A. Preparing the client for a perfusion scan
• B. Attaching the client to a cardiac monitor
• C. Administering oxygen via nasal cannula
• D. Ensuring that the intravenous (IV) line is patent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client who has just undergone surgery experiences sudden chest pain, dyspnea, and tachypnea, indicating possible pulmonary embolism, the immediate priority for the nurse is to administer oxygen via nasal cannula. This intervention aims to improve oxygenation and alleviate respiratory distress, which is crucial in the setting of a potential pulmonary embolism. Preparing the client for a perfusion scan is not the immediate priority as stabilizing the client's respiratory status comes first. While attaching the client to a cardiac monitor is important for monitoring, administering oxygen takes precedence in this situation. Ensuring IV line patency is relevant for overall client care but is not the priority when a client is experiencing respiratory distress requiring immediate intervention.

3. In a patient with deep vein thrombosis (DVT), which of the following symptoms would be expected?

• A. Chest pain.
• B. Shortness of breath.
• C. Coughing up blood.
• D. Cyanosis.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Shortness of breath is a common symptom of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) due to the risk of a pulmonary embolism. DVT occurs when a blood clot forms in a deep vein, usually in the legs. If a portion of the clot breaks loose and travels to the lungs, it can cause a pulmonary embolism, leading to symptoms like shortness of breath. Chest pain is more commonly associated with conditions like a heart attack or pulmonary embolism itself. Coughing up blood is a symptom more indicative of conditions such as pulmonary embolism or lung cancer. Cyanosis, which is a bluish discoloration of the skin or mucous membranes due to poor oxygenation, can be seen in severe cases of pulmonary embolism but is not a typical symptom of DVT.

4. When planning activities for a socialization group for older residents of a long-term facility, what information would be most useful for the nurse?

• A. The length of time each resident has resided at the facility.
• B. A brief description of each resident's family life.
• C. The age of each resident.
• D. The usual activity patterns of each resident.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most useful information for the nurse when planning activities for a socialization group for older residents of a long-term facility would be the usual activity patterns of each resident. An older person's level of activity is a determining factor in adjustment to aging, as described by the Activity Theory of Aging. By understanding the usual activity patterns of each resident, the nurse can tailor activities that cater to their interests and abilities, promoting social engagement and overall well-being. The other options, such as the length of time residing at the facility, a brief description of family life, or the age of each resident, may provide some insights but do not directly relate to planning activities that support adjustment to aging and socialization within the group.

5. What is the most common cause of peptic ulcers?

• A. Helicobacter pylori infection
• B. NSAID use
• C. Excessive alcohol consumption
• D. Stress

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Helicobacter pylori infection is the most common cause of peptic ulcers. This bacterium can weaken the protective mucous coating of the stomach and duodenum, allowing acid to get through to the sensitive lining beneath. NSAID use (Choice B) can also cause peptic ulcers by disrupting the stomach's mucosal barrier. Excessive alcohol consumption (Choice C) and stress (Choice D) can exacerbate and contribute to ulcer formation but are not the primary cause.

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