HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Exam
1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate that the client is experiencing a complication of the treatment?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
- C. Increased heart rate.
- D. Fatigue.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg during hemodialysis may indicate fluid overload or an ineffective dialysis session, which can lead to complications such as heart failure or pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal and expected finding during hemodialysis, indicating proper filtration of waste products. Increased heart rate can be a normal compensatory response to hemodialysis due to fluid shifts and should be monitored but does not necessarily indicate a complication. Fatigue is a common symptom in clients with chronic renal failure undergoing hemodialysis and is not specific to complications of the treatment.
2. The client is being taught about the best time to plan sexual intercourse in order to conceive. Which information should be provided?
- A. Two weeks before menstruation.
- B. Vaginal mucous discharge is thick.
- C. Low basal temperature.
- D. First thing in the morning.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Two weeks before menstruation.' Ovulation typically occurs 14 days before menstruation begins during a typical 28-day cycle. To increase the chances of conception, sexual intercourse should occur within 24 hours of ovulation. High estrogen levels during ovulation lead to changes in vaginal mucous discharge, making it more 'slippery' and stretchy. Basal temperature rises during ovulation. The timing of intercourse during the day is less significant than ensuring it happens around ovulation. The other options are incorrect because planning intercourse two weeks before menstruation is likely to miss the fertile window, thick vaginal mucous discharge indicates ovulation is approaching, and low basal temperature is not indicative of the fertile period.
3. When preparing a client who has had a total laryngectomy for discharge, what instruction is most important for the nurse to include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Recommend that the client carry suction equipment at all times.
- B. Instruct the client to have writing materials with them at all times.
- C. Tell the client to carry a medic alert card stating that they are a total neck breather.
- D. Tell the client not to travel alone.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The most crucial instruction for a client who has had a total laryngectomy is to carry a medic alert card stating that they are a total neck breather. This is important because if they experience a cardiac arrest, mouth-to-neck breathing may be required. Choice A about carrying suction equipment is not the most critical as the client may not always need it. Choice B is not as essential as having a medic alert card. Choice D is not directly related to the client's safety due to their laryngectomy.
4. A client with kidney stones from secondary hyperoxaluria requires medication. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering?
- A. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium)
- B. Propantheline (Pro-Banthine)
- C. Tolterodine (Detrol LA)
- D. Allopurinol (Zyloprim)
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Allopurinol (Zyloprim). Allopurinol is used to treat kidney stones caused by secondary hyperoxaluria. This medication helps prevent the formation of certain types of kidney stones. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is given to clients with urinary tract infections, not for kidney stones. Propantheline (Pro-Banthine) is an anticholinergic medication used for treating certain gastrointestinal conditions, not kidney stones. Tolterodine (Detrol LA) is also an anticholinergic with smooth muscle relaxant properties, primarily used to treat overactive bladder conditions, not kidney stones.
5. A client with renal insufficiency and a low red blood cell count asks, 'Is my anemia related to the renal insufficiency?' How should the nurse respond?
- A. Red blood cells produce erythropoietin, which increases blood flow to the kidneys.
- B. Your anemia and renal insufficiency are related to inadequate vitamin D and a loss of bone density.
- C. Erythropoietin is usually released from the kidneys and stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow.
- D. Kidney insufficiency inhibits active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Erythropoietin is produced in the kidney and is released in response to decreased oxygen tension in the renal blood supply. Erythropoietin stimulates red blood cell production in the bone marrow. Anemia in renal insufficiency is often due to decreased erythropoietin production. Anemia and renal insufficiency are not manifestations of vitamin D deficiency as stated in choice B. Choice A is incorrect as erythropoietin does not increase blood flow to the kidneys. Choice D is incorrect because kidney insufficiency does not inhibit active transportation of red blood cells throughout the blood; rather, it affects erythropoietin production and subsequent red blood cell formation.
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