Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate that the client is experiencing a complication of the treatment?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• C. Increased heart rate.
• D. Fatigue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg during hemodialysis may indicate fluid overload or an ineffective dialysis session, which can lead to complications such as heart failure or pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal and expected finding during hemodialysis, indicating proper filtration of waste products. Increased heart rate can be a normal compensatory response to hemodialysis due to fluid shifts and should be monitored but does not necessarily indicate a complication. Fatigue is a common symptom in clients with chronic renal failure undergoing hemodialysis and is not specific to complications of the treatment.

2. A client diagnosed with a history of asthma and bronchitis arrives at the clinic with shortness of breath, productive cough with thickened, tenacious mucus, and the inability to walk up a flight of stairs without experiencing breathlessness. Which action is most important for the nurses to instruct the client about self-care?

• A. Call the clinic if undesirable side effects of medications occur
• B. Avoid crowded enclosed areas to reduce pathogen exposure
• C. Increase the daily intake of oral fluids to liquefy secretions
• D. Teach anxiety reduction methods for feelings of suffocation

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Increasing the daily intake of oral fluids is crucial for clients with asthma and bronchitis as it helps to liquefy thickened mucus, making it easier to clear the airways and manage symptoms. This self-care measure can improve the client's ability to breathe more effectively. Choice A is not the most immediate concern when addressing thickened mucus and breathing difficulties. While avoiding crowded areas is beneficial to prevent respiratory infections, it is not directly related to managing thickened secretions. Teaching anxiety reduction methods is important for overall well-being, but it does not directly address the physiological issue of thickened mucus in the airways.

3. A client receiving warfarin (Coumadin) therapy should have which of the following laboratory results reviewed to evaluate the effectiveness of the therapy?

• A. Complete blood count (CBC).
• B. Prothrombin time (PT).
• C. International normalized ratio (INR).
• D. Partial thromboplastin time (PTT).

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: International normalized ratio (INR). The INR is the most appropriate laboratory result to review when evaluating the effectiveness of warfarin (Coumadin) therapy. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication, and the INR helps determine if the dosage is within a therapeutic range to prevent clotting or bleeding complications. Choice A, a Complete Blood Count (CBC), provides information about the cellular components of blood but does not directly assess the anticoagulant effects of warfarin. Choice B, Prothrombin time (PT), measures the time it takes for blood to clot but is not as specific for monitoring warfarin therapy as the INR. Choice D, Partial Thromboplastin Time (PTT), evaluates the intrinsic pathway of coagulation and is not the primary test used to monitor warfarin therapy.

4. Why is the combination drug trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) necessary?

• A. To broaden the antibacterial spectrum.
• B. To decrease bacterial resistance.
• C. To improve the taste.
• D. To minimize toxic effects.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: To decrease bacterial resistance. Trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) is a combination drug used to prevent bacterial resistance to sulfonamides. It works by targeting different steps in the bacterial metabolic pathway, making it harder for bacteria to develop resistance. Choice A is incorrect because the combination does not broaden the antibacterial spectrum; instead, it enhances effectiveness against specific bacteria. Choice C is incorrect as taste improvement is not the primary reason for combining these drugs. Choice D is incorrect because while combination therapy can sometimes help minimize toxic effects, the primary purpose in this case is to address bacterial resistance.

5. What most likely led to the 67-year-old woman who lives alone tripping on a rug in her home and fracturing her hip?

• A. Failing eyesight causing an unsafe environment.
• B. Renal osteodystrophy due to chronic renal failure.
• C. Osteoporosis due to hormonal changes.
• D. Cardiovascular changes leading to small strokes impairing mental acuity.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Osteoporosis, caused by hormonal changes in later life, is the most likely predisposing factor for the fracture in the proximal end of her femur. Osteoporosis leads to reduced bone density, making bones more fragile and susceptible to fractures, especially in the elderly. Choices A, B, and D are less likely to directly lead to a hip fracture in this scenario. Failing eyesight (choice A) could contribute to the fall but is not the main predisposing factor for the fracture. Renal osteodystrophy (choice B) and cardiovascular changes (choice D) are less commonly associated with hip fractures compared to osteoporosis in elderly women.

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