Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate that the client is experiencing a complication of the treatment?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• C. Increased heart rate.
• D. Fatigue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg during hemodialysis may indicate fluid overload or an ineffective dialysis session, which can lead to complications such as heart failure or pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal and expected finding during hemodialysis, indicating proper filtration of waste products. Increased heart rate can be a normal compensatory response to hemodialysis due to fluid shifts and should be monitored but does not necessarily indicate a complication. Fatigue is a common symptom in clients with chronic renal failure undergoing hemodialysis and is not specific to complications of the treatment.

2. A nurse plans care for an older adult client. Which interventions should the nurse include in this client’s plan of care to promote kidney health? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Ensure adequate fluid intake.
• B. Leave the bathroom light on at night.
• C. Encourage use of the toilet every 6 hours.
• D. A & B

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct interventions to promote kidney health in an older adult client include ensuring adequate fluid intake to maintain hydration and leaving the bathroom light on at night to promote safe ambulation. Adequate hydration supports kidney function and helps prevent urinary tract infections. Encouraging the use of the toilet every 6 hours is not specific to kidney health and may not be individualized to the client's needs. Providing thorough perineal care after each voiding is important for hygiene but not directly related to promoting kidney health. Assessing for urinary retention and urinary tract infections is crucial but falls under assessment rather than interventions for promoting kidney health specifically.

3. A nurse is assessing a postoperative client on an hourly basis. The nurse notes that the client’s urine output for the past hour was 25 mL. Based on this finding, the nurse first:

• A. Calls the physician
• B. Increases the rate of the IV infusion
• C. Checks the client’s overall intake and output record
• D. Administers a 250-mL bolus of normal saline solution (0.9%)

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Clients are at risk of hypovolemia postoperatively, and decreased urine output can be an early sign. However, to accurately interpret this finding, the nurse must assess the overall fluid balance by checking the client’s intake and output records. Increasing the IV infusion rate or administering a bolus of normal saline solution without a physician's order would not be appropriate as these interventions require a prescription. The physician should be notified once the nurse has collected all necessary assessment data, including fluid status and vital signs.

4. A client with a family history of polycystic kidney disease (PKD is being assessed by a nurse. For which clinical manifestations should the nurse assess? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Nocturia
• B. Flank pain
• C. Increased abdominal girth
• D. B & C

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Clients with PKD commonly present with flank pain and increased abdominal girth due to abdominal distention caused by cysts. Bloody urine is also a common symptom due to tissue damage from PKD. Nocturia and dysuria are not typical manifestations of PKD. Constipation is not directly associated with PKD. Therefore, the correct choices are flank pain and increased abdominal girth, making option D the correct answer.

5. The healthcare professional is preparing to give a dose of trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX) and learns that the patient takes warfarin (Coumadin). The healthcare professional will request an order for

• A. a decreased dose of TMP-SMX.
• B. a different antibiotic.
• C. an increased dose of warfarin.
• D. coagulation studies.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Sulfonamides, like trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMP-SMX), can potentiate the anticoagulant effects of warfarin (Coumadin). To monitor the patient's response and prevent adverse effects, the healthcare professional should request coagulation studies, such as International Normalized Ratio (INR) levels. Choosing a decreased dose of TMP-SMX would not address the potential drug interaction between TMP-SMX and warfarin. Opting for a different antibiotic is not necessary if the interaction can be managed by monitoring. Increasing the dose of warfarin without monitoring could lead to excessive anticoagulation and adverse events, so it's not the appropriate action in this scenario.

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