Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving hemodialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate that the client is experiencing a complication of the treatment?

• A. Clear dialysate outflow.
• B. Blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg.
• C. Increased heart rate.
• D. Fatigue.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: A blood pressure of 150/90 mm Hg during hemodialysis may indicate fluid overload or an ineffective dialysis session, which can lead to complications such as heart failure or pulmonary edema. This finding should be reported promptly for further evaluation and intervention. Clear dialysate outflow is a normal and expected finding during hemodialysis, indicating proper filtration of waste products. Increased heart rate can be a normal compensatory response to hemodialysis due to fluid shifts and should be monitored but does not necessarily indicate a complication. Fatigue is a common symptom in clients with chronic renal failure undergoing hemodialysis and is not specific to complications of the treatment.

2. A nurse is conducting an assessment of a client who underwent thoracentesis of the right side of the chest 3 hours ago. Which findings does the nurse report to the physician? Select all that apply.

• A. Unequal chest expansion
• B. Pulse rate of 82 beats/min
• C. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths/min
• D. Diminished breath sounds in the right lung

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After thoracentesis, the nurse should assess the client for signs of pneumothorax, which include increased respiratory rate, dyspnea, retractions, unequal chest expansion, diminished breath sounds, and cyanosis. Unequal chest expansion is a key sign of pneumothorax due to the accumulation of air in the pleural space, causing the affected lung to collapse partially. Pulse rate and respiratory rate within normal ranges, like in choices B and C, are not the priority findings to report in this situation. Diminished breath sounds in the right lung could be expected after thoracentesis and may not necessarily indicate a complication like pneumothorax, making choice D less urgent to report.

3. A client with a completed ischemic stroke has a blood pressure of 180/90 mm Hg. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Position the head of the bed (HOB) flat.
• B. Withhold intravenous fluids.
• C. Administer a bolus of IV fluids.
• D. Give an antihypertensive medication.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In a client with a completed ischemic stroke, an elevated blood pressure like 180/90 mm Hg requires immediate intervention to prevent further damage. Giving an antihypertensive medication is essential to reduce the risk of recurrent stroke or complications related to hypertension. Positioning the head of the bed flat, withholding IV fluids, or administering a bolus of IV fluids are not appropriate actions for managing elevated blood pressure in this scenario and may not address the underlying cause of the hypertension or prevent potential complications.

4. The nurse is preparing to give a dose of oral clindamycin (Cleocin) to a patient being treated for a skin infection caused by Staphylococcus aureus. The patient has experienced nausea after several doses. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Administer the next dose when the patient has an empty stomach.
• B. Hold the next dose and contact the patient’s provider.
• C. Instruct the patient to take the next dose with a full glass of water.
• D. Request an order for an antacid to give along with the next dose.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next is to instruct the patient to take the next dose of clindamycin with a full glass of water. This is important to minimize gastrointestinal (GI) irritation such as nausea, vomiting, and stomatitis that the patient has been experiencing. Administering the medication on an empty stomach would likely worsen the GI upset. Holding the next dose and contacting the provider is not necessary at this point unless symptoms persist or worsen. Additionally, requesting an antacid is not indicated as the primary intervention for managing the nausea related to clindamycin.

5. The nurse is caring for a patient who will receive 10% calcium gluconate to treat a serum potassium level of 5.9 mEq/L. The nurse performs a drug history prior to beginning the infusion. Which drug taken by the patient would cause concern?

• A. Digitalis
• B. Hydrochlorothiazide
• C. Hydrocortisone
• D. Vitamin D

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Calcium gluconate is administered to treat hyperkalemia by reducing myocardial irritability. When given to a patient taking digitalis, it can lead to digitalis toxicity. Digitalis and calcium gluconate both affect cardiac function, and their concomitant use can potentiate adverse effects. Hydrochlorothiazide, Hydrocortisone, and Vitamin D may impact potassium levels, but they do not interact with calcium gluconate in a way that would cause concern for toxicity.

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