a nurse checks the residual volume from a clients nasogastric tube feeding before administering an intermittent tube feeding and finds 35 ml of gastri
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Nursing Elites

HESI RN

Evolve HESI Medical Surgical Practice Exam

1. A nurse checks the residual volume from a client’s nasogastric tube feeding before administering an intermittent tube feeding and finds 35 mL of gastric contents. What should the nurse do before administering the prescribed 100 mL of formula to the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After checking the residual feeding contents, the nurse should pour the residual volume back into the stomach by removing the syringe bulb or plunger and then pouring the gastric contents, using the syringe, into the nasogastric tube. This helps ensure that the residual volume is reintroduced into the client's gastrointestinal tract. Option B is incorrect because discarding the residual volume without reinstilling it into the stomach can lead to inaccurate medication administration and potential electrolyte imbalances. Option C is incorrect as diluting the residual volume with water and injecting it under pressure can cause aspiration or discomfort for the client. Option D is incorrect because mixing the residual volume with the formula can alter the prescribed dosage and consistency, potentially affecting the client's nutritional intake and causing complications.

2. In a patient with chronic kidney disease, which of the following is a common complication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Hyperkalemia is a common complication in chronic kidney disease due to the kidneys' reduced ability to excrete potassium. As kidney function declines, potassium levels may increase, leading to hyperkalemia. Hypernatremia (increased sodium levels), hypocalcemia (low calcium levels), and hyperphosphatemia (elevated phosphate levels) are not typically associated with chronic kidney disease. Therefore, the correct answer is hyperkalemia.

3. A client is being prepared for a colonoscopy. Into which position does the nurse assist the client for the procedure?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: During a colonoscopy, the client is positioned in the left Sims' position. This position is chosen as it optimally utilizes the client’s anatomy to facilitate the introduction of the colonoscope. The lithotomy position (Choice B) is commonly used for gynecological exams, not colonoscopies. The knee-chest position (Choice C) is typically employed for rectal examinations or certain surgical procedures, not colonoscopies. The right Sims' position (Choice D) is a less common position for colonoscopy compared to the left Sims' position.

4. What is the most common cause of peptic ulcers?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Helicobacter pylori infection is the most common cause of peptic ulcers. This bacterium can weaken the protective mucous coating of the stomach and duodenum, allowing acid to get through to the sensitive lining beneath. NSAID use (Choice B) can also cause peptic ulcers by disrupting the stomach's mucosal barrier. Excessive alcohol consumption (Choice C) and stress (Choice D) can exacerbate and contribute to ulcer formation but are not the primary cause.

5. The nurse is assessing a client with chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which finding is most important for the nurse to respond to first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Potassium level of 6.0 mEq/L indicates hyperkalemia, which is a critical electrolyte imbalance in clients with chronic kidney disease. Hyperkalemia can lead to life-threatening arrhythmias, making it the priority finding to address. Choice B, a daily urine output of 400 ml, may indicate decreased kidney function but does not pose an immediate life-threatening risk compared to hyperkalemia. Peripheral neuropathy (Choice C) and uremic fetor (Choice D) are common manifestations of CKD but are not as urgent as addressing a potentially fatal electrolyte imbalance like hyperkalemia.

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