HESI RN
HESI Medical Surgical Exam
1. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate for a patient with acute pancreatitis?
- A. Administering oral fluids.
- B. Administering IV fluids.
- C. Administering analgesics.
- D. Encouraging the patient to ambulate.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most appropriate intervention for a patient with acute pancreatitis is administering IV fluids. IV fluid administration is crucial in managing acute pancreatitis as it helps maintain hydration, correct electrolyte imbalances, and prevent shock. Administering oral fluids (Choice A) may not be sufficient to address the fluid loss and maintain hydration in these patients. While analgesics (Choice C) are important for pain management in pancreatitis, addressing hydration and shock prevention takes precedence. Encouraging the patient to ambulate (Choice D) may be beneficial in some cases for preventing complications like deep vein thrombosis, but it is not the primary intervention needed in the acute phase of pancreatitis.
2. A nursing student is suctioning a client through a tracheostomy tube while a nurse observes. Which action by the student would prompt the nurse to intervene and demonstrate the correct procedure? Select all that apply.
- A. Setting the suction pressure to 60 mm Hg
- B. Applying suction throughout the procedure
- C. Assessing breath sounds before suctioning
- D. Placing the client in a supine position before the procedure
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct suction pressure for an adult client with a tracheostomy tube is typically between 80 to 120 mm Hg. Suction should be applied intermittently during catheter withdrawal to avoid damaging the airway. Assessing breath sounds before suctioning is important to ensure the procedure is necessary. Placing the client in a supine position before suctioning can compromise their airway; instead, the head of the bed should be elevated to facilitate proper drainage and reduce the risk of aspiration. Therefore, setting the suction pressure to 60 mm Hg is incorrect and would prompt the nurse to intervene and correct the procedure.
3. A male client comes into the emergency department with a serum creatinine of 2.2 mg/dL and a blood urea nitrogen (BUN) of 24 mg/dL. What question should the nurse ask first when taking this client’s history?
- A. Have you been taking any aspirin, ibuprofen, or naproxen recently?
- B. Do you have anyone in your family with renal failure?
- C. Have you had a diet that is low in protein recently?
- D. Has a relative had a kidney transplant lately?
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct question to ask the client first is about their recent intake of nephrotoxic medications like aspirin, ibuprofen, or naproxen. Elevated serum creatinine and BUN levels indicate possible renal issues, making it crucial to assess potential causes such as medication-induced nephrotoxicity. Inquiring about family history of renal failure or recent kidney transplants would not provide immediate insights into the client's current renal condition. While a diet low in protein could influence BUN levels, it is important to address medication history first due to the acute presentation in the emergency department.
4. The nurse is providing discharge teaching for a patient who will receive oral levofloxacin (Levaquin) to treat pneumonia. The patient takes an oral hypoglycemic medication and uses over-the-counter (OTC) antacids to treat occasional heartburn. The patient reports frequent arthritis pain and takes acetaminophen when needed. Which statement by the nurse is correct when teaching this patient?
- A. You may take antacids with levofloxacin to decrease gastrointestinal upset.
- B. You may take nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory medications (NSAIDs) for arthritis pain.
- C. You should monitor your serum glucose more closely while taking levofloxacin.
- D. You should take levofloxacin on an empty stomach to improve absorption.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Levofloxacin may increase the effects of oral hypoglycemic medications, so patients taking these should be advised to monitor their serum glucose levels closely.
5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with chronic renal failure who is receiving peritoneal dialysis. Which of the following findings would indicate a complication of the treatment?
- A. Clear dialysate outflow.
- B. Cloudy dialysate outflow.
- C. Decreased urine output.
- D. Increased blood pressure.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Cloudy dialysate outflow is a sign of peritonitis, a serious complication of peritoneal dialysis that requires immediate medical attention. Peritonitis, an infection of the peritoneum, the lining of the abdominal cavity, can lead to severe complications if not treated promptly. Clear dialysate outflow is an expected finding in peritoneal dialysis, indicating proper functioning of the process. Decreased urine output is common in clients with renal failure due to impaired kidney function. Increased blood pressure may be present in renal failure but is not a direct complication of peritoneal dialysis.
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