HESI RN
HESI RN Exit Exam 2024 Capstone
1. The nurse has completed the diet teaching of a client who is being discharged following treatment of a leg wound. A high-protein diet is encouraged to promote wound healing. Which lunch choice by the client indicates that the teaching was effective?
- A. A tuna fish sandwich with chips and ice cream
- B. A vegetable salad with croutons and ranch dressing
- C. A grilled chicken breast with steamed vegetables
- D. A peanut butter and jelly sandwich with soda
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C. Grilled chicken is an excellent source of protein, which is important for wound healing. Choices A, B, and D are less ideal for wound healing. Choice A contains high-fat and high-sugar components like chips and ice cream, which may not support wound healing effectively. Choice B includes croutons and ranch dressing, which may not provide as much protein as needed for wound healing. Choice D with a peanut butter and jelly sandwich and soda lacks a balanced meal with adequate protein to promote wound healing.
2. The nurse is completing a client's preoperative routine and finds that the operative permit is not signed. The client begins to ask more questions about the surgical procedure. Which action should the nurse take next?
- A. Witness the client's signature on the permit.
- B. Answer the client's questions about the surgery.
- C. Inform the surgeon that the operative permit is not signed and the client has questions about the surgery.
- D. Reassure the client that the surgeon will answer any questions before the anesthesia is administered.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should inform the surgeon immediately that the operative permit is not signed and that the client has questions about the surgery. It is crucial for the surgeon to be aware of the situation so they can address the client's concerns, explain the procedure, and obtain the necessary signed permit before proceeding with the surgery. This ensures informed consent and compliance with preoperative protocols.
3. A client with liver cirrhosis is receiving lactulose for hepatic encephalopathy. Which finding indicates the medication is effective?
- A. The client's level of consciousness improves.
- B. The client's ammonia level decreases.
- C. The client has three bowel movements daily.
- D. The client's liver enzymes return to normal.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: "The client's ammonia level decreases." In hepatic encephalopathy, elevated ammonia levels contribute to neurological symptoms. Lactulose works by promoting the excretion of ammonia in the stool, leading to decreased serum ammonia levels. Therefore, a decrease in ammonia levels indicates that lactulose is effectively reducing ammonia buildup, improving hepatic encephalopathy symptoms. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because improvement in level of consciousness, bowel movements, or normalization of liver enzymes may not directly reflect the effectiveness of lactulose in reducing ammonia levels and improving hepatic encephalopathy.
4. A client with Addison's disease is at risk for which of the following complications?
- A. Hypertension
- B. Hypovolemia
- C. Hypernatremia
- D. Hypokalemia
Correct answer: B
Rationale: A client with Addison's disease is at risk for hypovolemia. Addison's disease is characterized by adrenal insufficiency, particularly cortisol and aldosterone deficiency. Aldosterone deficiency leads to impaired sodium and water retention, resulting in decreased blood volume and hypovolemia. This condition can cause hypotension, not hypertension (Choice A), as reduced blood volume leads to decreased pressure. Hypernatremia (Choice C) is unlikely in Addison's disease because of the loss of sodium along with water in hypovolemia. Hypokalemia (Choice D) can occur due to aldosterone deficiency, but it is not the primary complication associated with Addison's disease.
5. The home health care nurse is visiting a client who was recently diagnosed with type 2 diabetes mellitus. The client is prescribed repaglinide (Prandin) and metformin (Glucophage) and asks the nurse to explain these medications. The nurse should reinforce which instructions to the client? Select one that doesn't apply.
- A. Diarrhea can occur secondary to the metformin.
- B. The repaglinide is not taken if a meal is skipped.
- C. The repaglinide is taken 30 minutes before eating.
- D. Nausea and vomiting
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Repaglinide is a rapid-acting oral hypoglycemic that should be taken before meals and withheld if the client does not eat. Hypoglycemia is a side effect of repaglinide, so carrying a simple sugar is essential. Metformin decreases hepatic glucose production and can cause diarrhea. Muscle pain may occur as an adverse effect and should be reported to the HCP.