HESI RN
HESI Exit Exam RN Capstone
1. After a lumbar puncture, a client reports a severe headache. What is the nurse's priority intervention?
- A. Administer a dose of acetaminophen.
- B. Elevate the head of the bed.
- C. Encourage the client to rest in a dark room.
- D. Administer caffeine to relieve the headache.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After a lumbar puncture, a severe headache is often caused by cerebrospinal fluid leakage. Elevating the head of the bed or having the client lie flat can reduce cerebrospinal fluid pressure and alleviate the headache. These positions help prevent further fluid loss and relieve discomfort. While acetaminophen or caffeine may help in relieving the headache, changing the client's position is the priority to address the underlying cause. Resting in a dark room may be beneficial for headache relief but is not the priority intervention compared to adjusting the position to manage cerebrospinal fluid pressure.
2. The nurse is evaluating the laboratory reports of a client with hypothyroidism. The nurse would expect which of the following laboratory values?
- A. Increased TSH
- B. Increased thyroxine (T4)
- C. Decreased TSH
- D. Decreased T3
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased TSH. In hypothyroidism, the thyroid gland is underactive, leading to low levels of thyroid hormones. As a compensatory mechanism, the pituitary gland releases more thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) to try to stimulate the thyroid gland to produce more hormones. Therefore, increased TSH levels are expected in hypothyroidism. Choice B is incorrect because in hypothyroidism, thyroxine (T4) levels are usually decreased, not increased. Choice C is incorrect as hypothyroidism is characterized by increased TSH levels, not decreased. Choice D is also incorrect because in hypothyroidism, T3 levels may be decreased, but TSH is a more sensitive indicator for diagnosis.
3. A 4-year-old has been hospitalized for 24 hours with skeletal traction for treatment of a fracture of the right femur. The nurse finds that the child is now crying and the right foot is pale with the absence of a pulse. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Notify the healthcare provider
- B. Readjust the traction
- C. Administer the ordered PRN medication
- D. Reassess the foot in fifteen minutes
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A pale foot with no pulse suggests a compromised blood supply, indicating a potential vascular emergency. The nurse's immediate priority is to notify the healthcare provider to address the situation promptly. Readjusting the traction, administering PRN medication, or waiting to reassess the foot later could lead to serious complications due to the compromised blood supply, making choices B, C, and D incorrect in this critical situation.
4. A client presents to the clinic with a large abscess on the right thigh. The healthcare provider incises and drains the abscess. Which instruction should the nurse provide to the client upon discharge?
- A. Avoid showering until the wound is completely closed
- B. Perform daily wound care and dressing changes
- C. Apply heat to the wound for 15 minutes twice a day
- D. Take the prescribed antibiotic until the wound is fully healed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: After incision and drainage of an abscess, it is crucial to perform daily wound care and dressing changes to prevent infection and promote healing. Avoiding showering until the wound is completely closed (choice A) may not be practical or necessary. Applying heat to the wound (choice C) can increase the risk of infection and delay healing. While taking the prescribed antibiotic (choice D) is important, wound care and dressing changes are more directly related to promoting healing and preventing complications.
5. The nurse is caring for a 24-month-old toddler who has sensory sensitivity, difficulty engaging in social interactions, and has not yet spoken two-word phrases. Which assessment should the nurse administer?
- A. Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test
- B. The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT)
- C. Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence
- D. Denver Developmental Screening Test
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The Modified Checklist for Autism in Toddlers (M-CHAT) is specifically designed to screen for autism spectrum disorders in young children. It is appropriate for this child, given the signs of social and communication delays. The Peabody Picture Vocabulary Test (Choice A) assesses receptive vocabulary and may not capture the social and communication aspects seen in autism. The Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale of Intelligence (Choice C) measures cognitive ability and may not address the social and communication delays. The Denver Developmental Screening Test (Choice D) is a broad developmental assessment tool, but the M-CHAT is more specific to screening for autism in this case.
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